Question 1 of 100
‘’Rapid Financing Instrument’’ and ‘’Rapid Credit Facility’’ are related to the provisions of which of lending by which of the following?
A
Asian Development Bank
B
International Monetary Fund
C
United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
D
World Bank
Question 2 of 100
With reference to the Indian Economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee
2. An increase in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness
3. An increase in trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 3 of 100
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, the RBI is likely to buy government securities
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 4 of 100
With reference to the ‘’G20 Common Framework’’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 5 of 100
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of ‘’Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 6 of 100
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own good in addition to offering their platforms as market-places
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 7 of 100
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A
1 and 2 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 3 and 4
Question 8 of 100
Which of the following situations best reflects ‘’Indirect Transfers’’ often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
A
An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
B
A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
C
An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
D
A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Question 9 of 100
With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 10 of 100
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 11 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the supreme court and High court to punish for contempt of themselves
3. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1, 2 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
3 only
Question 12 of 100
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
1. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 13 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority and there is no provision for Joint Sitting
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 14 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 15 of 100
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A
1 and 2
B
2 only
C
1 and 3
D
3 only
Question 16 of 100
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
A
The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
B
The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
C
D
Question 17 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
B
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
C
D
Question 18 of 100
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
A
Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
B
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
C
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
D
Question 19 of 100
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
A
Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
B
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
C
It has seamless portability across the country.
D
Question 20 of 100
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
A
As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
B
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
C
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
D
The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Question 21 of 100
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous-oxide?
A
B
C
D
Question 22 of 100
“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
A
Reduced seed requirement
B
Reduced methane production
C
Reduced electricity consumption
D
Question 23 of 100
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
A
B
C
D
Question 24 of 100
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
A
B
C
D
Question 25 of 100
Consider the following pairs Peak Mountains
A
Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya
B
Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya
C
Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya
D
Question 26 of 100
The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
A
B
C
D
Question 27 of 100
Consider the following countries:
A
Azerbaijan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Tajikistan
D
Turkmenistan
Question 28 of 100
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
A
Monazite is a source of rare earths.
B
Monazite contains thorium.
C
Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
D
In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Question 29 of 100
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
A
B
C
D
Question 30 of 100
Consider the following pairs:
Wetland / Lake Location
A
Hokera Wetland – Punjab
B
Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
C
Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
D
Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu
Question 31 of 100
Consider the following:
A
Aarogya Setu
B
CoWIN
C
DigiLocker
D
DIKSHA
Question 32 of 100
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
A
Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
B
In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
C
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
D
Question 33 of 100
With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:
A
SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
B
SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
C
Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
D
Question 34 of 100
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?
A
B
C
D
Question 35 of 100
Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
A
B
C
D
Question 36 of 100
Consider the following communication technologies:
A
Closed-circuit Television
B
Radio Frequency Identification
C
Wireless Local Area Network
D
Question 37 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
B
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
C
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
D
Question 38 of 100
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
A
Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
B
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not “naturally occur in our gut.
C
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
D
Question 39 of 100
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
A
The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
B
Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform.
C
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.
D
Question 40 of 100
If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible. effects on the Earth?
A
GPS and navigation systems could fail.
B
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
C
Power grids could be damaged.
D
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Question 41 of 100
“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
A
B
C
D
Question 42 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
B
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
C
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emmission reduction goals.
D
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
Question 43 of 100
“If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?
A
B
C
D
Question 44 of 100
In the context of In WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
A
The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
B
In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
C
PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
D
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Question 45 of 100
With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
A
It is a fungus.
B
It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas.
C
It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north- eastern India.
D
Question 46 of 100
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
A
Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
B
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
C
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
D
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emmisions.
Question 47 of 100
Which of the following is not a bird?
A
B
C
D
Question 48 of 100
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
A
Alfalfa
B
Amaranth
C
Chickpea
D
Clover
Question 49 of 100
“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
A
B
C
D
Question 50 of 100
The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
A
B
C
D
Question 51 of 100
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?
A
Administration of Justice
B
Local Self-Government
C
Land Revenue
D
Police
Question 52 of 100
In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:
A
B
C
D
Question 53 of 100
Consider the following freedom fighters:
A
Barindra Kumar Ghosh
B
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
C
Rash Behari Bose
D
Question 54 of 100
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
A
The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
B
Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
C
D
Question 55 of 100
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
A
Nettipakarana
B
Parishishtaparvan
C
Avadanashataka
D
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Question 56 of 100
With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Historical person Known as
A
Arya deva — Jaina scholar
B
Dignaga — Buddhist scholar
C
Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar
D
Question 57 of 100
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
A
Statement 1 is incorrect: Chengez Khan invaded India during the reign of Iltumish for the first time. He was the founder and first Great Khan of the Mongol Empire.
B
Statement 2 is correct: During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one of the Mongol invasions reached till the outskirts of Delhi city and besieged it.
C
Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq defeated the Mongols and he had not lost any of the portions of his kingdom to them.
D
Source: The Mongols and Delhi Sultanate- Cambridge
Question 58 of 100
With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?
(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids
A
The Sayyids were claimed to descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They Commanded special respect in Muslim society.
B
Even the Timur protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion in India. Although his policy was one of general slaughter.
C
The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah) and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during Delhi sultanate.
D
Source: History of Medieval India by V.D Mahajan
Question 59 of 100
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A
Statement 1 is incorrect: Next to the Portuguese, the Dutch set their feet in India.
B
In 1602, the United East India Company of the Netherlands was formed and given permission by the Dutch government to trade in the East Indies including India.
C
Gajapati Rule has declined in 1541. The last ruler was Kakharua Deva.
D
Statement 2 is correct: Alfanso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur sultanate king Adil Shahis with the help of Vijaynagara Empire.
Question 60 of 100
According to Kautiyla’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
A
A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
B
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
C
If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.
D
Question 61 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
B
Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
C
Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
D
Question 62 of 100
Consider the following States:
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Kerala
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Tripura
Question 63 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
B
The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
C
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
D
Question 64 of 100
With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?
A
The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
B
BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
C
BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
D
Question 65 of 100
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider pin the following statements:
A
As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
B
The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
C
D
Question 66 of 100
Consider the following:
A
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
B
Missile Technology Control Regime
C
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
D
Question 67 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
B
Vietnam is led by a multi-party-political system.
C
Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
D
For a long time, Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
Question 68 of 100
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
A
B
C
D
Question 69 of 100
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
A
They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
B
They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
C
They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
D
Question 70 of 100
Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs States
A
Ghataprabha – Telangana
B
Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
C
Indira Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
D
Maithon – Chhattisgarh
Question 71 of 100
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, entrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing worker?
A
B
C
D
Question 72 of 100
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
A
CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
B
It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
C
It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
D
It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Question 73 of 100
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
A
B
C
D
Question 74 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
B
The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ‘in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
C
D
Question 75 of 100
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
A
B
C
D
Question 76 of 100
With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
A
It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
B
It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
C
It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
D
Question 77 of 100
Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
A
B
C
D
Question 78 of 100
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
A
The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
B
Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
C
Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
D
Question 79 of 100
With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
A
The Tea Board is a statutory body.
B
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
C
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
D
The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Question 80 of 100
Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
A
B
C
D
Question 81 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
B
Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.
C
D
Question 82 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
B
Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
C
Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
D
Question 83 of 100
Consider the following countries
A
Armenia
B
Azerbaijan
C
Croatia
D
Romania
Question 84 of 100
Consider the following statements
A
Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
B
Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
C
Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
D
Question 85 of 100
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
A
A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
B
Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
C
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.
D
Question 86 of 100
Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue which Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
A
B
C
D
Question 87 of 100
Consider the following pairs
A
B
C
D
Question 88 of 100
Consider the following pairs:
A
B
C
D
Question 89 of 100
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
A
Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
B
When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
C
Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
D
Question 90 of 100
Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
A
B
C
D
Question 91 of 100
Consider the following pairs:
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
A
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dhauli is located in Odisha.
B
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Erragudi or Yerragudi is located in Andhra Pradesh
C
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jaugada is located in Odisha.
D
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi is located in Uttarakhand.
Question 92 of 100
Consider the following pairs:
A
B
C
D
Question 93 of 100
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
A
B
C
D
Question 94 of 100
“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
A
B
C
D
Question 95 of 100
The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the, teachings of Ramanuja?
A
B
C
D
Question 96 of 100
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
A
Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
B
A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
C
Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
D
Question 97 of 100
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
A
B
C
D
Question 98 of 100
Consider the following statements:
A
Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
B
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
C
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
D
Question 99 of 100
Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
A
assess the age of a plant or animal.
B
distinguish among species that look alike.
C
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
D
Question 100 of 100
Consider the following
A
Carbon monoxide
B
Nitrogen oxide
C
Ozone
D
Sulphur dioxide