Question 1 of 100
Find the missing number:
8 : 64 :: 7 : ?
A
49
B
42
C
56
D
36
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
Sample Address: 45-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
A
45C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
B
45-C, Green Valley Home, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
C
45-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
D
54-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
The seminar in Vijayawada occurred 4 days before Nellore, while Tirupati was 2 days after Nellore. If Tirupati's
seminar was on 20 March, when did the Vijayawada seminar happen?
A
14 March
B
15 March
C
16 March
D
17 March
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
If "RAMESH" is coded as "SZNDTG", what is the code for "SURESH"?
A
TTQBTG
B
UTSDTG
C
TTSDTG
D
TVSDTG
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
In a code language, "Ram is smart" is coded as "la pa ta", "Ram is tall" is coded as "la pa ka", "Sita is smart" is coded
as "ma pa ta". What is the code for "Sita is tall"?
A
ma pa ka
B
la ma ka
C
pa ka ta
D
na pa ka
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
What should come at the place of question mark?
120, 110, 100, 90, ?, 70
A
80
B
85
C
75
D
95
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
If in a certain code, 'EAST' is written as 'TSAE', how will 'ASTE' be written?
A
ETSA
B
EAST
C
TSAE
D
STAE
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
If you multiply the first four natural numbers, what do you get?
A
24
B
20
C
16
D
32
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
A bus travels a distance of 240 km in 4 hours. If the bus increases its speed by 20 km/h, how much time will it take
to cover the same distance?
A
3 h
B
2.5 h
C
3.5 h
D
4 h
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
A is the wife of B. C is the son of A. How is B related to C?
A
Mother
B
Father
C
Grandfather
D
Brother
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
If 73= 343, then 83= ?
A
512
B
486
C
576
D
256
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.
Statement:
1. Some teachers are kind.
2. All kind people are respected.
Conclusions:
I. Some teachers are respected.
II. All teachers are respected.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
Complete the series.
3, 8, 15, 24, ?
A
32
B
35
C
36
D
40
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?
60, 55, 65, ?, 70, 45
A
50
B
85
C
75
D
90
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
Which word does NOT belong to the group based on meaning?
PEN, PENCIL, ERASER, BOOK, TIGER
A
PEN
B
PENCIL
C
BOOK
D
TIGER
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.
Statement:
1. All cars are vehicles.
2. Some vehicles are bikes.
3. No bike is a truck.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are not trucks.
II. All bikes are vehicles.
A
Only I follows.
B
Only II follows.
C
Both I and II follow.
D
Neither I nor II follows.
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
If 5 books cost ₹150, how many books can you buy for ₹300?
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
15
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
If * = +, @ = -, # = ×; then 6 # 2 * 3 @ 4 = ?
A
11
B
14
C
17
D
10
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If in a certain language, 'MARKET' is written as 'LZQJDS', how is 'PLANET' written in that code?
A
OKZMDS
B
OKXMDS
C
OKYMDS
D
OKZMDR
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions is/are definitely TRUE
from the statement.
Statement:
1. All fruits are healthy.
2. Some healthy things are vegetables.
Conclusion:
I. Some fruits are vegetables.
II. Some vegetables are healthy.
A
Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are TRUE.
B
Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is TRUE.
C
Only Conclusion II is TRUE.
D
Only Conclusion I is TRUE.
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
Which city is different?
A
Bhopal
B
Indore
C
Nagpur
D
Ujjain
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
What comes next?
AB, CD, EF, ?
A
GH
B
GI
C
HF
D
IJ
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
Find the ODD one out.
Mumbai, Kolkata, Pune, Chennai, Delhi
A
Mumbai
B
Pune
C
Chennai
D
Delhi
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
In the word "BIOLOGY", what is the alphabetical index of the 3rd letter from the right?
A
25
B
15
C
12
D
7
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
If POWER is coded as QPXFS, how is QPXFS coded?
A
SQYGT
B
RQYGU
C
RPYGT
D
RQYGT
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Read the following statements and mark the correct option: Assertion (A): Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa
Rebellion against the British. Reason (R): He protested against the forest laws that restricted tribal access to resources.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true, but R is false.
D
A is false, but R is true.
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
The economic policy reforms of 1991 are popularly known as:
A
Five-Year Plan
B
New Fiscal Policy
C
New Economic Policy
D
Economic Reconstruction Plan
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Each Mandala of the Rigveda is further subdivided into ___.
A
Suktas
B
Kandas
C
Puranas
D
Samhitas
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
After the death of Shivaji, which group came to hold effective political power in the Maratha state?
A
Mughals
B
Deshmukhs
C
Kunbis
D
Chitpavan Brahmanas
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
Tippani is a traditional folk dance performed mainly by women in which Indian state?
A
Rajasthan
B
Gujarat
C
Maharashtra
D
Punjab
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
In the book Fraternity: Constitutional Norm and Human Need, what is the central theme explored by the author?
A
The economic inequality caused by globalization
B
The legal history of the Indian Constitution
C
The idea of fraternity as a binding force in democracy
D
The role of federalism in India's political system
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
Which of the following statements accurately describes the law of demand in microeconomics?
A
As price increases, demand increases.
B
As price decreases, demand decreases.
C
As price increases, demand decreases, ceteris paribus.
D
Price has no effect on demand.
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
Carefully read the following two statements and pick the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): The
government's revenue receipts don't bring with them any burden of repayment or financial liability. Reason (R): These
earnings aren't meant to be returned and generally come from either tax-related sources or other regular inflows.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
Which of the following Buddhist Councils and their locations are correctly matched?
A
First Buddhist Council - Rajagriha
B
Second Buddhist Council - Lumbini
C
Third Buddhist Council - Kashmir
D
Fourth Buddhist Council - Pataliputra
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Which act introduced the system of dyarchy (dual government) in the provinces of British India?
A
The Indian Councils Act of 1861
B
The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909
C
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
D
The Government of India Act of 1935
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
Which of the following statements about scoring and penalties in field hockey is/are correct? 1) A field goal is
valid only if played from inside the shooting circle. 2) In a penalty corner, the ball must exit and re -enter the circle
before a goal. 3) A penalty stroke may be lifted to any height if pushed or flicked.
A
Only 1 and 2 are Correct
B
Only 2 and 3 are Correct
C
Only 1 and 3 are correct
D
1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
Which entity/entities publish the Climate Change Performance Index 2025?
A
UNEP
B
IPCC
C
Germanwatch & NewClimate Institute
D
WWF
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
Who is known as the architect of India's Five-Year Plans?
A
Sardar Patel
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
B.R. Ambedkar
D
P .C. Mahalanobis
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
The Taj Mahal was inspired by which famous monument?
A
Humayun's Tomb
B
Jama Masjid
C
Victoria Memorial
D
Qutub Minar
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
How does a concave mirror form an image when an object is located at its center of curvature?
A
Real, inverted, and diminished
B
Real, inverted, and same size
C
Virtual, erect, and magnified
D
Real, erect, and diminished
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
According to Mahalanobis strategy, growth should primarily be driven by investment in:
A
Agricultural inputs
B
Consumer goods sector
C
Capital goods sector
D
Import-led services sector
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
In BNSS, what provision strengthens witness protection during trial?
A
Anonymous jury system
B
Use of video conferencing and identity concealment for vulnerable witnesses
C
Witnesses can choose to record statements via SMS
D
Witnesses are not required to attend trial
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
In Madhya Pradesh, the unmarried girls place lamps inside a decorated earthen pot called ___ during Gangaur .
A
Kalash
B
Ghudlia
C
Matki
D
Deepdan
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
Which of the following accurately describes the legal and institutional basis of "Special Category State" status in
India?
A
It is a constitutional provision granted under Article 275.
B
It is defined in the Constitution and recommended by the Inter-State Council.
C
It is not mentioned in the Constitution and was granted by the National Development Council.
D
It is conferred by the Finance Commission under Article 280.
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
Who is the author of the book 'Why I am a Hindu'?
A
Pavan K. Varma
B
Shashi Tharoor
C
Aravind Adiga
D
Gurcharan Das
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
Which of the following statements about the Indian Super League (ISL) is correct regarding its inaugural match in
2014?
A
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Mumbai.
B
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Goa.
C
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Kolkata.
D
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Delhi.
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A):
Gandhara images frequently feature halo and curly hair . Reasoning (R): These elements symbolise Graeco -Roman
influence in North-West India.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true, but R is false.
D
A is false, but R is true.
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
Which of the following describes the role of Aruna Asaf Ali in Indian history?
A
She was elected as India's first female judge.
B
She hoisted the Indian flag during the Quit India Movement.
C
She led a military regiment during the 1857 revolt.
D
She participated in drafting the Constitution.
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
Which of the following correctly identifies India's first Paralympic medallist and his achievement?
A
Devendra Jhajharia - Gold, javelin throw, Athens 1975
B
Murlikant Petkar - Gold, men's 50m freestyle, Heidelberg 1972
C
Mariyappan Thangavelu - Gold, high jump, Rio 1973
D
Avani Lekhara - Gold, air rifle, Tokyo 1976
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
Which category of prohibited substances in sports includes drugs that increase alertness and reduce fatigue?
A
Anabolic Agents
B
Peptide Hormones
C
Beta-2 Agonists
D
Stimulants
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
The radii of three concentric circles are in arithmetic progression. If the innermost radius is 7 cm and the
outermost is 21 cm, what is the radius of the middle circle?
A
12 cm
B
11 cm
C
10 cm
D
14 cm
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
What is the area of the segment formed by a chord in a circle of radius 6 cm, if the angle subtended at the center
is 120°?
A
12𝜋 −9√3
B
12𝜋 −18√3
C
36𝜋 −9√3
D
12𝜋 −9
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
A building has 4 square pyramidal turrets, each of base 4 m and height 6 m. If each need 1.25 times volume for
structural fill, find total fill needed.
A
160m3
B
260m3
C
280m3
D
180m3
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
If sin𝐴 = cos𝐵 and both A and B are acute, what is A + B?
A
60°
B
90°
C
120°
D
180°
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
Simplify: √3(√12−√27)
A
-3
B
4
C
-5
D
6
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
The average score of a batsman in 20 innings is 42. If his highest score of 120 is excluded, what is the new average?
A
37.89
B
38.89
C
39.89
D
36.89
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
If a chord subtends an angle of 75° at the center, the angle it subtends at the circumference on the same side is:
A
35°
B
37.5°
C
45°
D
60°
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
If cot𝐴 = 3 and A is acute, then find sin𝐴
A
√10
10
B
√10
5
C
√10
9
D
√9
10
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
If sin𝐴 =
3
5 then what is sin2𝐴+cos2 𝐴−2sin𝐴cos𝐴?
A
1
B
0
C
1
25
D
1
5
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
A 30-litre container of pure milk undergoes a 6-litre removal and 6-litre water replacement process, repeated 4
times. Approximately how much original milk remains?
A
15
78
125 litres
B
17
28
255 litres
C
12
36
125 litres
D
15
68
255 litres
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
The time taken to cover 132 km by car is 1 hour . Find the time taken to cover 88 km by car .
A
45 min
B
38 min
C
42 min
D
40 min
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
A certain sum amounts to Rs. 1,600 in two years and to Rs. 2,000 in three years at compound interest when
compounded annually. Find the rate of interest.
A
21%
B
19%
C
25%
D
20%
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A donor deposits ₹8,00,000 in a trust that earns 10% simple interest annually. The interest is used to distribute
three annual awards. If the second and third awards are ₹35,000 and ₹20,000 respectively, what is the value of the
first award?
A
25,000
B
30,000
C
35,000
D
45,000
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
The surface area of a cuboid is 468cm2, and its dimensions are in the ratio 2:3:4. Find its volume.
A
480cm3
B
648cm3
C
512cm3
D
528cm3
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
Instructions: Evaluate the following statements to determine if the information provided is sufficient to answer
the question.
Question: If P , Q, and R work together, how many days will they take to complete a project?
Statement I: Q and R together can complete the project in 10 days.
Statement II: P and R together can complete the project in 15 days.
A
Statement I alone provides enough information to answer the question, but Statement II alone does not.
B
Statement II alone provides enough information to answer the question, but Statement I alone does not.
C
Both Statement I and Statement II combined are needed to answer the question, as neither statement on its own
is sufficient.
D
Even when combined, the information in both Statement I and Statement II is not enough to answer the question.
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
Solve: (√7921−√2070.25)×(
1
4)
A
10.875
B
8.875
C
7.785
D
6.685
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
A man spends 70% of his income. His income increases by 10% and his expenditure by 5%. What is the percentage
increase in his savings?
A
21.67%
B
31.67%
C
41.67%
D
51.67%
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
A right triangular prism has a base area of 24cm2 and height 10 cm. What is its volume?
A
120cm3
B
240cm3
C
480cm3
D
360cm3
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
If the height of a cylinder is equal to its diameter and radius is 5 cm, find its volume.
A
125cm3
B
250𝜋cm3
C
500𝜋cm3
D
625𝜋cm3
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
The measures of the interior angles of a pentagon are x, x+10, x+20, x+30 and x+40, What is the measure of the
smallest angle?
A
88°
B
98°
C
108°
D
118°
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
Convert 3 radians to degrees.
A
171.89°
B
240°
C
360.46°
D
540°
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
If the price tag of a microwave is Rs. 5000 and the shopkeeper offers a discount of 18%, what is the selling price?
A
Rs. 4100
B
Rs. 4200
C
Rs. 4300
D
Rs. 4500
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
In triangle ABC, an altitude AD is drawn from point A to side BC. Given the coordinates A(1, 5), B(2, 1), and C(6,
3), what is the slope of the line representing altitude AD?
A
2
B
-2
C
−
1
2
D
1
2
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
Triangle PQR has vertices P(1, 1), Q(4, 1), and R(1, 5). Triangle STU has vertices S(6, 2), T(9, 2), and U(6, 6). Are
these two triangles congruent?
A
Yes, by SSS
B
Yes, by SAS
C
Yes, by ASA
D
No, they are not congruent
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
A can complete a task in 15 days, and B can complete the same task in 20 days. How long will it take them to
complete the task together?
A
5.5 days
B
6.5 days
C
7.5 days
D
8.5 days
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who lives in solitude and seclusion.'
A
Renegade
B
Patriot
C
Mystic
D
Recluse
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
Choose the correct word for blank (1).
In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5).
Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.
The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about
humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation
escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate
technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and
artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught
with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither
contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law.
Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world
where basic human needs remain unmet for millions.
Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering
technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but
whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical
frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.
A
is
B
was
C
has been
D
had been
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
Choose the correct word for blank (2).
In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5).
Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.
The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about
humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation
escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate
technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and
artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught
with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither
contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law.
Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world
where basic human needs remain unmet for millions.
Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering
technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but
whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical
frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.
A
becoming
B
had become
C
have become
D
to become
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
Choose correct conditional mood. (3)
In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5).
Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.
The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about
humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation
escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate
technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and
artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught
with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither
contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law.
Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world
where basic human needs remain unmet for millions.
Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering
technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but
whether that future is marked by expansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical
frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.
A
benefiting
B
benefit
C
benefits
D
have benefiting
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
The word "nascent" (4) most nearly means:
In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5).
Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.
The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about
humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation
escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate
technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and
artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught
with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither
contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law.
Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world
where basic human needs remain unmet for millions.
Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering
technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but
whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical
frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.
A
Well-established
B
Primitive or newly developing
C
Deliberately hidden
D
Declining rapidly
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
. The word "tempering" most nearly means: (5)
In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5).
Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage.
The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about
humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation
escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate
technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and
artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught
with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither
contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law.
Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world
where basic human needs remain unmet for millions.
Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering
technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but
whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical
frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.
A
Accelerating aggressively
B
Reducing or moderating
C
Ignoring completely
D
Glorifying excessively
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.
The _______ theory revolutionized the field of anthropology.
A
evoluttionary
B
evolutionary
C
evolusionary
D
evvolutionary
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
She did not spoke to anyone.
A
did spoke
B
spoken
C
did not speak
D
was not speaking
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An exact copy'.
A
Replication
B
Manuscript
C
Model
D
Facsimile
Clear Selection
Question 85 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
The symposium on autonomous systems (1)/ underscored an urgent need of robust ethical frameworks (2)/ to
anticipate unforeseen consequences (3)/ of machine decision-making. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
Only after the final audit report was submitted (1)/ did the committee realise (2)/ that the estimates, although well -
documented, (3)/ has omitted indirect liabilities. (4)
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.
1. Regular check-ups are essential to detect issues early.
2. Maintaining good dental hygiene is crucial.
3. It prevents cavities, gum disease, and other oral problems.
4. Brushing and flossing daily form the core of this practice.
A
2-1-3-4
B
2-4-1-3
C
3-4-2-1
D
2-3-4-1
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Torpor
A
Stupor
B
Liveliness
C
Sluggishness
D
Inertia
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Choose the correct spelling for a word meaning 'opposite in nature'.
A
Contrary
B
Countrary
C
Contrery
D
Contreryy
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Change the following from active to passive:
Someone had left the emergency exit unlocked overnight.
A
The emergency exit had been left unlocked overnight.
B
The emergency exit was being left unlocked overnight.
C
The emergency exit had to be left unlocked overnight.
D
The emergency exit has been left unlocked overnight.
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PHLEGMATIC
A
Calm
B
Excitable
C
Agitated
D
Emotional
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage:
1. Marine ecosystems are sensitive to temperature shifts.
2. Coral bleaching is one visible consequence.
3. Rising ocean temperatures disrupt symbiotic algae.
4. This affects reef biodiversity and fisheries.
A
3-2-1-4
B
2-3-1-4
C
1-3-2-4
D
1-2-4-3
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
Fill in the blank with the appropriate collocation:
She has a strong _____ of responsibility.
A
idea
B
belief
C
sense
D
view
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
The child cried as if he was in pain.
A
as though he is in pain
B
as if he were in pain
C
like he was in pain
D
as he was in pain
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys
the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
The teacher said, "Who can solve this question?"
A
The teacher asked who could solve that question.
B
The teacher asked who can solve that question.
C
The teacher said who could solve this question.
D
The teacher asked to solve that question.
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Select the correct option:
The manuscript was replete with obscure references, many of ________ baffled reviewers.
A
whom
B
which
C
them
D
those
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The cleric described the tonsure as a sacred act.
A
The friar received his tonsure before initiation.
B
The biologist found a tonsure on the frog's dorsal fin.
C
The medieval tonsure was symbolic of humility.
D
The monk's tonsure marked him as a Benedictine.
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:
It had been made clear by the committee that the rule would not be altered.
A
The committee made it clear that the rule would not be altered.
B
The rule was made clear not to be altered by the committee.
C
The rule alteration was clarified by the committee.
D
The committee had altered the rule as made clear .
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately
conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.
The director noted that the figures had been inflated.
A
The director said, "These figures have been inflated."
B
The director said, "The figures are inflated."
C
The director said, "The figures were exaggerated."
D
The director said, "They inflated the figures."
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
Red herring
A
A minor distraction
B
A false clue meant to mislead
C
A sign of danger
D
A contradictory statement
Clear Selection