Question 1 of 100
Find the missing number:
5, 15, 35, 75, ?
A
145
B
150
C
155
D
160
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
Rs. 900 shared among 9 people. 3 back out. What's new share per person?
A
Rs. 150
B
Rs. 120
C
Rs. 180
D
Rs. 100
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
Find the missing term.
6, 12, 24, 30, 60, ?
A
66
B
72
C
90
D
120
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?
72, 71, 74, 69, 76, ?
A
67
B
70
C
68
D
72
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
In a certain code language, 'play with fire' is coded as 'ab, cd, ef', 'fire and water' is coded as 'ef, gh, ij ', 'play and
rain' is coded as 'ab, gh, kl'. How will 'with rain play' be coded in the same language?
A
cd, kl, ab
B
cd, gh, ab
C
ef, kl, ab
D
cd, kl, ef
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
What comes next in the series?
C, F, I, L, ?
A
M
B
N
C
O
D
P
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
Find the missing term.
3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ?
A
28
B
29
C
30
D
31
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
House No. 45, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
A
House No. 45, Sector 12, Delhi - 201301
B
House No. 45, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
C
House No. 54, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
D
House No. 45, Sector 21, Noida - 201301
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
Statement:
1. All books are papers.
2. No paper is plastic.
Conclusions:
I. No book is plastic.
II. Some plastics are books.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
What is the next number in the series?
4, 12, 36, 108, ?
A
216
B
324
C
432
D
540
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
Find the ODD one out from the given options.
A
225
B
256
C
196
D
210
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
Statement:
1. All birds are animals.
2. Some animals are wild.
Conclusions:
I. Some birds are wild.
II. Some animals are birds.
A
Only I follows.
B
Only II follows.
C
Both I and II follow.
D
Neither I nor II follows.
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
The seminar in Jaipur happened 4 days before Bhopal. The seminar in Lucknow happened 3 days after Bhopal. If
Jaipur's seminar was on 10 September, when was Lucknow's?
A
17 September
B
16 September
C
15 September
D
18 September
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
If "RAMA" is written as "TCOC", how will "SITA" be written?
A
UKVC
B
UJVC
C
UJWB
D
TJVC
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
A sum of money becomes Rs. 8800 after 2 years and Rs. 9680 after 3 years at compound interest. What is the rate
of interest per annum?
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
Find the WRONG term in the given series.
15, 46, 139, 419, 1255, 3766
A
419
B
1255
C
46
D
139
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
What comes next?
AB, DE, GH, JK, ?
A
IJ
B
KL
C
MN
D
OP
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change in the number?
A
No change
B
5% increase
C
5% decrease
D
1% decrease
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If 92= 81 and 122= 144, then 112= ?
A
121
B
122
C
123
D
124
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
If 3:9 and 4:16, find 5:?
A
20
B
25
C
30
D
35
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
If SCHOOL is coded as TDIPPM, how is MARKET coded in the same code?
A
NBSLFU
B
NBSKFU
C
NARLFU
D
NBSLFV
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
From the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed from the letters used in the given word.
DEDUCTION
A
Action
B
Tone
C
Done
D
Deduct
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
Replace special characters with mathematical signs as given in options to make it meaningful equation.
8 $ 4 # 2 = 16
A
×, +
B
÷, -
C
+, ×
D
-, ÷
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
Select the one that is different.
A
Keyboard
B
Mouse
C
Printer
D
Windows
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
Complete the series.
8, 27, 64, 125, ?
A
150
B
180
C
216
D
243
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Consider the following about population growth in India:
Statement-I: The population pyramid in India is broad at the base and top and narrow in the middle.
Statement-II: India has a large proportion of young population due to high birth rates and declining death rates.
Which one of the following is CORRECT in respect of the above statements?
A
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II incorrect
D
Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
The primary focus of the Quad is in which region?
A
Europe
B
Africa
C
Indo-Pacific
D
South America
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Which of the following works was composed by the Vijayanagara ruler Krishnadevaraya and is renowned for its
poetic richness and devotion to Lord Vishnu?
A
Ramacharitam
B
Amuktamalyada
C
Gita Govinda
D
Manimekalai
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
The revolutionary Bagha Jatin (Jatindranath Mukherjee) was known for his valiant fight and for inspiring
revolutionaries in which Indian state?
A
Punjab
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Bengal
D
Bihar
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
The "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM -KUSUM)" scheme has a focus on the
energy sector within agriculture. What is the primary objective of this scheme?
A
To provide free electricity to all agricultural consumers
B
To promote the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides for higher yields
C
To encourage the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas
D
To improve the rural electricity grid infrastructure for better power supply
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
Which among the following is NOT a Vedanga, or the limbs of the Veda?
A
Kalpa
B
Vaisheshika
C
Vyakarana
D
Jyotisha
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
The Government of India Act of 1935 primarily aimed to:
A
Grant complete independence to India
B
Establish a Dominion status for India
C
Provide for a federal structure with provincial autonomy
D
Introduce universal adult suffrage
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
Which sport is the term "zugzwang" associated with?
A
Kabaddi
B
Chess
C
Shooting
D
Table Tennis
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
The color order in a secondary rainbow is:
A
Same as primary rainbow
B
Reversed compared to primary rainbow
C
Random and variable
D
Depends on humidity
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Who is the 20th governor of Uttar Pradesh since 2019?
A
Anandiben Patel
B
Satya Pal Malik
C
Ram Naresh Yadav
D
Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
Fill in the Blank: Thoda combines martial art with ______ in Himachal Pradesh.
A
Archery
B
Swordplay
C
Stick-fighting
D
Wrestling
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
Which of the following statements about Sir M. Visvesvaraya is correct?
A
He was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna
B
He was known for his role in India's hydroelectric projects
C
He designed the first Indian Rail budget model
D
He was a noted industrialist from pre-Independence India
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
What distinguishes ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission from other solar observatories?
A
It uses radar waves to study the Sun
B
It orbits the Sun directly
C
It will study the solar corona from Lagrange Point 1
D
It is placed in a lunar orbit
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
Which of the following statements about output markets in an open economy is correct?
A
A country can only produce what it consumes
B
Consumers are restricted to domestically produced goods
C
Trade in goods and services allows wider consumer and producer choice
D
Only producers benefit from international trade
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
The Planning Commission was established in which year?
A
1947
B
1949
C
1950
D
1952
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
Which of the given statements is/are CORRECT regarding solar power production?
Solar power is a renewable energy source with low operational costs and minimal environmental impact.
Kamuthi Solar Power Project is one of the largest single -location solar power plants in India, with a capacity of 648
MW.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
Which of the following is a cybercrime related to identity theft under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A
Using public Wi-Fi to access online accounts
B
Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud
C
Downloading free music from unofficial websites
D
Posting harmless pictures on a social media profile
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
Fill in the blank: The final match of the 133rd Durand Cup, held between 26 July and 31 August 2024, featured
Northeast United FC competing against ______.
A
Bengaluru FC
B
East Bengal FC
C
Mohun Bagan SG
D
FC Goa
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
Which of the following statements most accurately describes a key difference between the Mathura and
Gandhara schools of art, as broadly understood in Indian architectural history?
A
Mathura art primarily used green phyllite, while Gandhara art used spotted red sandstone
B
Gandhara art developed on purely indigenous lines, whereas Mathura art showed foreign influences
C
Mathura art predominantly focused on Buddhist themes, while Gandhara focused on Hindu deities
D
Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, whereas Gandhara art reflected Hellenistic (Greco-
Roman) features
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
The rock-cut Kailasa temple at Ellora was carved out of how many rocks?
A
One single rock
B
Cement blocks
C
Three adjoining rocks
D
A cluster of stones
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
Which Nigerian author received the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize for their "unflinching" exploration of identity, gender,
and migration?
A
Teju Cole
B
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
C
Ben Okri
D
Tsitsi Dangarembga
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
Which of the following statements about India's National and Institutional Sports Competitions is/are correct?
National Games began in 1924 at Lahore and were renamed from the IX Games in Bombay.
SGFI holds nationals only for boys under 17 in contact sports like Wrestling and Kabaddi.
Inter-University tournaments use knockout or league formats and allow one team per university.
A
Only 1 and 2 are Correct
B
Only 1 and 3 are Correct
C
Only 2 and 3 are correct
D
1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The 1991 reforms led to the opening of the Indian economy to foreign investors.
Reason (R): The government wanted to increase domestic savings rate rapidly.
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
The Index of Economic Freedom 2025 is published by which conservative think tank?
A
Cato Institute
B
Heritage Foundation
C
American Enterprise Institute
D
Brookings Institution
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
Which of the following is NOT a type of raga-based performance?
A
Thumri
B
Dhrupad
C
Prabandha
D
Sonata
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
In a quadrilateral ABCD, angles A, B, C are in the ratio 1:2:3. If angle D = 120°, what is angle A?
A
60°
B
64°
C
40°
D
50°
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
Simplify: √(7+4√3)
A
√3+2
B
2+√7
C
√3+√5
D
5+√3
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
A sum of ₹8000 is lent out in two parts, one at 5% simple interest and the other at 7% simple interest. If the
annual interest is ₹500, the sum lent at 7% is:
A
₹3000
B
₹4000
C
₹4500
D
₹5000
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
Jayesh covers one-fourth of his journey at 20 km/h, another one -fourth at 10 km/h, and the rest at 70 km/h.
What is his average speed?
A
18.25 km/h
B
22.4 km/h
C
16.35 km/h
D
15.55 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
A man observes the top of a pole with an angle of elevation of 45°. He walks 15 m towards the pole, and the
angle of elevation becomes 60°. What is the height of the pole?
A
15(√3-1)m
B
15(3-√3)m
C
15(√3+1)
2 m
D
15(3+√3)
2 m
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
A rectangular tank measures 12 cm long, 10 cm wide, and 6 cm high. If a spherical ball of the largest possible size
is placed inside this tank, what is the volume of the space not occupied by the ball?
A
(720-27л)сm³
B
(720-36л)сm³
C
(600-36л)сm³
D
(720-288л)cm³
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
A and B share profit in 7:5. If B gets Rs. 15,000, how much did A receive?
A
Rs. 21,000
B
Rs. 17,500
C
Rs. 19,000
D
Rs. 20,000
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
What is the ratio of the interior angle of a regular hexagon to the interior angle of a regular 12 -sided polygon
(dodecagon)?
A
4:7
B
3:7
C
4:5
D
3:5
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
A man walks a square plot of area 121 m². If he walks once around its boundary, how far does he walk?
A
44 m
B
46 m
C
48 m
D
52 m
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
Two numbers are in the ratio 5:7. If 9 is added to each, the new ratio becomes 8:11. What are the original
numbers?
A
135 and 189
B
150 and 210
C
120 and 168
D
180 and 252
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
A:B = 3:4, B:C = 6:7, C:D = 14:15. What is the ratio A:D?
A
3:5
B
9:16
C
7:20
D
9:25
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
A bag contains 20% red balls, 30% green balls and the rest blue balls. If there are 80 blue balls, what is the total
number of balls?
A
100
B
160
C
200
D
240
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A candidate attempted 75% of the questions in an exam. He got 80% of the attempted ones correct, and 10% of
the unattempted ones were also awarded marks due to grace. If the total number of questions is 200, how many did
he get right?
A
130
B
135
C
120
D
125
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
A trader gave a 20% discount on the market price but still earned a 10% profit. What percentage was the market
price above the cost price?
A
25.5%
B
35%
C
37.5%
D
40%
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
A cricketer has played 8 innings with an average score of 40. In the next inning, he scores 80. What will be the
new average?
A
40.44
B
46.44
C
44.44
D
48.44
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
A combo offer says, "Buy 2 shirts at Rs. 1200 each, get a third shirt free." What is the effective price per shirt?
A
Rs. 850
B
Rs. 800
C
Rs. 1000
D
Rs. 900
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
Two taps can fill a tub in 6 minutes and 4 minutes, respectively. A pipe can empty it in 3 minutes. If all the three
are kept open simultaneously, when will the tub be full?
A
10 min
B
12 min
C
7 min
D
15 min
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
In a company, the average salary of 5 junior employees is Rs. 30,000, and that of 4 senior employees is Rs. 60,000.
What is the combined average salary?
A
Rs. 30,333.33
B
Rs. 30,000.33
C
Rs. 33,333.33
D
Rs. 43,333.33
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
A container has a 100-litre mixture of acid and water in the ratio 4:1. 20 litres is removed and replaced with water .
Then 20 litres is removed again and replaced with pure acid. What is the final percentage of acid?
A
76.8%
B
78.4%
C
81.6%
D
71.2%
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
If sec A = 13/12 and A is acute, find sin A.
A
5/13
B
12/13
C
5/12
D
13/5
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
Convert 2π/3 radians to degrees.
A
120°
B
90°
C
180°
D
60°
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
If A + B = 90° and tan A = 2, determine the value of tan A × tan B.
A
2
B
1
C
4
D
1/2
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
In a right-angled triangle, the Orthocenter lies at which of the following points?
A
The midpoint of the hypotenuse.
B
The vertex of the right angle.
C
A point on the hypotenuse but not the midpoint.
D
The midpoint of one of the legs.
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
A circle has a radius of 13 cm. A chord is drawn at a distance of 5 cm from the center . What is the length of the
chord?
A
12 cm
B
13 cm
C
24 cm
D
26 cm
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
A tangent is drawn from a point 17 cm from the center of a circle of radius 8 cm. Find the length of the tangent.
A
12 cm
B
15 cm
C
13 cm
D
10 cm
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.
The auditor's report revealed only a ________ examination of the company's financial records.
A
supperficial
B
superficiall
C
supurficiel
D
superficial
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who insists on strict adherence to rules'.
A
Despot
B
Martinet
C
Pedant
D
Zealot
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:
The allegation that the records had been falsified was reported as unsubstantiated.
A
The records falsified the allegation, which was reported.
B
The reporting of the records' falsification was alleged.
C
It was reported as unsubstantiated that the records were falsified.
D
Investigators reported the allegation that someone had falsified the records as unsubstantiated.
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
Cut the Gordian knot
A
To complicate a straightforward matter unnecessarily
B
To postpone an inevitable confrontation
C
To seek counsel from multiple advisors before deciding
D
To resolve a difficult problem by bold, decisive action
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Deliberate breach of faith or betrayal of trust'.
A
Mendacity
B
Turpitude
C
Perfidy
D
Treachery
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
Harp on the same string
A
To switch topics abruptly during a discussion
B
To speak evasively about a sensitive issue
C
To change one's stance under external pressure
D
To dwell on the same subject repeatedly and tediously
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
Select the correct option for the Direct Speech conversion of the sentence below.
The biologist remarked that genetic mutations could be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure.
A
The biologist said, "Genetic mutations can be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure."
B
She remarked, "If radiation is prolonged, genetic mutations will be accelerated."
C
The biologist said, "Genetic mutations could be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure."
D
She said, "Genetic mutations accelerate when radiation exposure is prolonged."
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
Choose the correctly spelt word meaning of the theory that all knowledge comes from sensory experience.
A
Empirisism
B
Empiricizm
C
Empiricism
D
Empericizm
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Incipient
A
Embryonic
B
Rudimentary
C
Germinal
D
Mature
Clear Selection
Question 85 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
Despite the warning signs, (1)/ the project lead had failed recognising (2)/ the critical flaws in the initial design (3)/
before the prototype was approved. (4)
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The conductor praised the rich bass resonance of the choir's lower section.
A
The angler pulled a striped bass from the cold river at dawn.
B
The bass line in the symphony was composed by Brahms.
C
She turned up the bass on the equaliser for a fuller sound.
D
The bass drum set the tempo for the entire orchestra.
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.
1. Clinical trials assess safety and efficacy before regulatory bodies grant approval.
2. Vaccine development begins with identifying antigens that trigger an immune response.
3. Once approved, mass immunisation campaigns aim to achieve herd immunity.
4. Ongoing surveillance monitors for adverse effects and emerging pathogen variants.
A
2-3-1-4
B
2-4-1-3
C
4-1-2-3
D
2-1-3-4
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
Spot the correct spelling of a sound-imitative word class.
A
Onomatopoeya
B
Onomatopoeia
C
Onnomatopoeia
D
Onomatopeia
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
1. This makes solar power an increasingly cost-competitive alternative to fossil fuels.
2. Solar energy harnesses sunlight through photovoltaic cells to generate electricity.
3. Technological advances have significantly reduced the cost of manufacturing solar panels.
4. Widespread adoption, however, requires improvements in energy storage and grid integration.
A
2, 3, 1, 4
B
3, 1, 4, 2
C
1, 2, 4, 3
D
4, 2, 3, 1
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage:
1. Regular reading strengthens vocabulary, analytical thinking, and empathy.
2. Despite the rise of digital media, the habit of reading remains indispensable.
3. Reading literary fiction, in particular, has been shown to enhance theory of mind.
4. Cultivating a reading culture therefore demands deliberate effort from both educators and policymakers.
A
2-1-3-4
B
3-1-4-2
C
1-3-2-4
D
4-2-1-3
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article.
____ epic tragedy 'Paradise Lost' by ____ celebrated poet John Milton.
A
The, the
B
An, the
C
An, a
D
A, the
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
Change the following from active to passive:
The engineers may have been overlooking certain critical safety protocols.
A
Certain critical safety protocols may have been overlooked by the engineers.
B
Certain critical safety protocols may be being overlooked by the engineers.
C
Certain critical safety protocols may have been being overlooked by the engineers.
D
Certain critical safety protocols may had been being overlooked by the engineers.
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
At sea
A
Navigating a situation skillfully
B
Acting recklessly without regard for consequences
C
Seeking an adventurous escape from routine
D
Feeling confused or perplexed
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys
the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
She said to him, "Have you submitted the quarterly report?"
A
She asked him had he submitted the quarterly report.
B
She asked him whether he has submitted the quarterly report.
C
She asked him whether he had submitted the quarterly report.
D
She said him that he had submitted the quarterly report.
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
Which of the following is the correct tense used in the sentence:
"Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of
cognitive decline."?
Read the passage and answer the questions:
The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with
mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than
previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep
insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making,
and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead
accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a
particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt.
At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non-
REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta
proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has
been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to
emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be
compensated by mere wakefulness.
Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture
continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires
not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage
practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate
sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.
A
Simple Past
B
Present Perfect Passive
C
Future Continuous
D
Past Perfect Continuous
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Identify the grammatical function of the phrase "Beyond the well-documented effects on alertness and reaction
time" in the first paragraph.
Read the passage and answer the questions:
The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with
mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than
previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep
insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making,
and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead
accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a
particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt.
At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non-
REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta
proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has
been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to
emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be
compensated by mere wakefulness.
Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture
continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires
not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage
practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate
sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.
A
A noun clause functioning as the main subject of the sentence.
B
A relative clause modifying the noun 'evidence'.
C
An introductory prepositional phrase modifying the main clause.
D
A direct object of the verb 'suggested'.
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
What is the meaning of the word "imperceptibly" as used in the passage?
Read the passage and answer the questions:
The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with
mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than
previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep
insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making,
and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead
accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a
particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt.
At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non-
REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta
proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has
been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to
emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be
compensated by mere wakefulness.
Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture
continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires
not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage
practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate
sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.
A
Rapidly and measurably
B
Predictably and systematically
C
In a manner too gradual to be noticed
D
Openly and with full awareness
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
The word "valorise" most nearly means:
Read the passage and answer the questions:
The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with
mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than
previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep
insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making,
and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead
accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a
particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt.
At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non-
REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta
proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has
been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to
emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be
compensated by mere wakefulness.
Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture
continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires
not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage
practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate
sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.
A
Condemn
B
Elevate in status or worth
C
Ignore
D
Estimate at a low rate
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
According to the passage, what makes prolonged sleep debt particularly treacherous?
Read the passage and answer the questions:
The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with
mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than
previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep
insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making,
and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead
accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a
particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt.
At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non-
REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta
proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has
been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to
emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be
compensated by mere wakefulness.
Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture
continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires
not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage
practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate
sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.
A
It causes immediate and catastrophic neurological failure.
B
Individuals become progressively less capable without realising it.
C
It permanently destroys the glymphatic system.
D
It prevents all forms of memory consolidation within a single night.
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
She behaves as if she was owning the entire department.
A
as if she owns the entire department
B
as though she owned the entire department
C
as if she is owning the entire department
D
as she owns the entire department
Clear Selection