Question 1 of 100
Statements:
1. All mangoes are fruits.
2. Some fruits are apples.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are mangoes.
II. All mangoes are fruits.
A
Only conclusion II is false
B
Both conclusion I and II are false
C
Only conclusion I is false
D
Neither conclusion I nor II is false
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
Find the odd one out:
A
Rose
B
Lotus
C
Carrot
D
Lily
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
If HOUSE is coded as IPVTF, how is IPVTF coded?
A
JQWVG
B
JOWUG
C
JQWUG
D
JQXUG
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 81. What is the largest number?
A
25
B
27
C
29
D
31
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
Eligibility Criteria: Minimum 55% in Graduation Typing speed 35 WPM Age between 21-30 years
Case: Meena scored 60%, has 36 WPM typing speed, age 29.
A
Eligible
B
Not eligible due to age
C
Not eligible due to typing speed
D
Not eligible due to marks
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
Select the word that cannot be formed using the letters of the word: TEACHERS
A
CHEAT
B
REACHES
C
SEARCHER
D
HEARTS
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
What comes next: AB, CD, EF, GH, ?
A
IJ
B
JK
C
KL
D
HI
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘-’, ‘C’ denotes ‘×’, ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’ Find the value of: 8 C 2 A 6 B 4 D 2 = ?
A
22
B
20
C
21
D
18
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
Sample Address: No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
A
No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
B
52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
C
No. 52, Green Vally Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
D
No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumabi, Maharashtra - 400069
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
Find the missing term in the seris.
2, 6, 18, 54, ?
A
164
B
166
C
162
D
160
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
A fire breaks out in an office. What should be your first step?
A
Inform fire brigade and evacuate people
B
Continue working
C
Lock the office
D
Ignore it
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
‘A @ B’ means A is the sister of B,
‘A # B’ means A is the mother of B,
‘A $ B’ means A is the father of B,
‘A % B’ means A is the brother of B.
What is the relation in: P # Q @ R ?
A
P is the mother of R
B
Q is the brother of R
C
P is the grandmother of R
D
P is the aunt of R
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
If “DOG” is coded as “4-15-7”, how will “GOD” be coded?
A
7-15-4
B
4-7-15
C
15-4-7
D
7-4-15
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
Statement: Water shortage has increased in the city.
Course of Action:
1. Government should start water conservation campaigns.
2. People should waste more water .
A
Both follow
B
Only 1 follows
C
Only 2 follows
D
Neither follows
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
Statements:
1. All chairs are tables.
2. Some tables are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are chairs.
II. Some tables are chairs.
A
Neither I nor II follows
B
Only Conclusion II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Only Conclusion I follows
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
Statement:
1. All pens are pencils.
2. Some pencils are erasers.
Conclusions:
I. Some erasers are pens.
II. Some pencils are pens.
A
Either I or II
B
Neither I nor II
C
Only I
D
Only II
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
Riya is the daughter of Amit. Amit is the son of Suresh. How is Riya related to Suresh?
A
Daughter
B
Granddaughter
C
Sister
D
Mother
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
Statement:
1. All cars are vehicles.
2. Some vehicles are bikes.
3. No bike is a bus.
Conclusions:
I. Some bikes are cars.
II. Some vehicles are not cars.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If ‘+’ means ‘×’ ‘-’ means ‘÷’ ‘×’ means ‘+’ ‘÷’ means ‘-’. Choose the correct equation:
A
6 + 3 - 2 = 16
B
8 - 4 + 2 = 6
C
5 × 2 ÷ 1 = 6
D
9 ÷ 3 + 1 = 3
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
If + becomes -, - becomes +, × becomes ÷ and ÷ becomes × Find value of: 80 ÷ 4 + 10 - 5 × 2 = ?
A
310.5
B
314.5
C
322.5
D
312.5
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
Find the odd one out:
A
25
B
36
C
49
D
45
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
What comes next? B, E, H, K, ?
A
M
B
N
C
O
D
P
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
What should come in place of ?
200, 195, 185, 170, ?, 125
A
155
B
150
C
160
D
145
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
Fill in the missing letter: D, G, J, ?, P
A
L
B
M
C
N
D
O
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
In a certain code, BOARD is written as CPBSE. How is LIGHT written in that code?
A
MJHIU
B
MJIIU
C
MKHJU
D
MKHIU
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Consider the following statements about the novel "Train to Pakistan":
1. It was written by Khushwant Singh and is set during the Partition of India in 1947.
2. The novel focuses on the events in a fictional village named Mano Majra.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has been enacted to replace which of the following colonial-era laws?
A
Indian Penal Code, 1860
B
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
C
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D
Police Act, 1861
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Fill in the blanks: Cricket is set to make its Olympic return at the _______ Games, marking the return of the sport
to the Olympics after more than a century since its debut in 1900.
A
2024 Paris
B
2028 Los Angeles
C
2032 Brisbane
D
2036 Ahmedabad
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
As an object is moved further away from the Earth's surface, its gravitational potential energy relative to the
surface:
A
Increases
B
Decreases
C
Remains zero
D
First increases then decreases
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
The Puranas, ancient Indian texts, are traditionally considered to be how many in number?
A
12
B
18
C
24
D
108
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory is:
A
AstroSat
B
Cartosat-1
C
INSAT-3DR
D
HysIS
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
Under which Governor-General was the first Factory Act of 1881 passed to improve labor conditions in India?
A
Lord Ripon
B
Lord Lytton
C
Lord Mayo
D
Lord Dufferin
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is provided constitutional status under which Article of
the Indian Constitution?
A
Article 338
B
Article 338A
C
Article 338B
D
Article 340
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.
2. It is mentioned under Article 263 of the Constitution.
3. It has the authority to impose binding decisions on States. Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Approximately how many massive gates (Pols) are there in the Kumbhalgarh Fort in Rajasthan?
A
3
B
5
C
7
D
9
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
Who presided over the Indian National Congress session held at Karachi in 1931?
A
Vallabhbhai Patel
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Subhas Chandra Bose
D
Rajendra Prasad
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
Which of the following statements best describes Arundhati Bhattacharya's professional achievement?
A
She was the first woman Chairperson of State Bank of India
B
She founded the first private airline in India
C
She was the first female Governor of RBI
D
She pioneered India's first tech unicorn
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
Which statement best reflects the outcome of land reforms in India between 1950-1970?
A
Intermediaries were abolished but tenancy reforms varied by state
B
All land was equally distributed to landless laborers
C
Private ownership of land was completely prohibited
D
Agriculture was entirely corporatized
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
In the context of Indian ecology, the Mangrove ecosystem is characterized by:
1. Prevalence of halophytic plants with pneumatophores.
2. Location in the intertidal zones of tropical and subtropical sheltered coasts.
3. High levels of salt tolerance and anaerobic soil conditions.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
The 'Hornbill Festival', also known as the 'Festival of Festivals', is celebrated by the tribal communities of which
state?
A
Arunachal Pradesh
B
Nagaland
C
Meghalaya
D
Tripura
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
Which Indian martial art, originating from Manipur, primarily utilizes the 'Sarit Sarak' (unarmed combat) and
'Thang' (sword) techniques?
A
Mardani Khel
B
Thang-Ta
C
Paika Akhada
D
Musti-yuddha
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
Which of the following G20 countries has the longest total coastline?
A
Canada
B
Australia
C
USA
D
India
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
The PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme is implemented by
which Union Ministry?
A
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
B
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
C
Ministry of Jal Shakti
D
Ministry of Power
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
Who was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner of India in early 2026?
A
Shri Rajiv Kumar
B
Shri Anup Chandra Pandey
C
Shri Gyanesh Kumar
D
Shri Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
Arrange the following segments of a traditional Kathak dance performance in order:
1. Tatkar (Footwork)
2. Thaat (Initial posture)
3. Amad (Entry/Introduction)
4. Tarana (Conclusion/Fast pace)
A
2-3-1-4
B
1-2-3-4
C
3-2-1-4
D
2-1-3-4
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
What does the term 'Gadhaiya' refer to in the context of early medieval Western India?
A
A type of silver and copper coinage
B
A village headman
C
A revenue administrative unit
D
A temple architecture style
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
What is the primary objective of 'Project Zorawar' recently in news regarding Indian defense?
A
Induction of light tanks for high altitude
B
Development of hypersonic missiles
C
Naval fleet expansion in Indian Ocean
D
Cybersecurity infrastructure upgrade
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
In which city did India win its first-ever Test match against England in 1952?
A
Chennai
B
Mumbai
C
Kolkata
D
Delhi
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
Which of the following is typically excluded from the calculation of National Income using the Expenditure
Method?
A
Transfer payments like old-age pensions
B
Private final consumption expenditure
C
Gross domestic capital formation
D
Net exports
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
According to the World Happiness Report 2025, which nation has consistently ranked at the top for consecutive
years?
A
Finland
B
Denmark
C
Iceland
D
Norway
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
A spherical balloon is inflated, causing its radius to grow by 20%. By what percentage does its surface area
increase?
A
20%
B
40%
C
44%
D
48%
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
A 60-litre mixture of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio 7:5. How much water must be added to
make the ratio 7:8?
A
10 L
B
12 L
C
15 L
D
18 L
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
Which of the following numbers has a terminating decimal representation?
A
5/14
B
7/15
C
9/16
D
4/21
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
40 men can do a piece of work in 10 days. Find the time required by 25 men to do double the work.
A
28 Days
B
30 Days
C
32 Days
D
36 Days
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
The average weight of 30 students in a class is 50 kg. If the weight of the teacher is added, the average rises to 51
kg. What is the teacher's weight?
A
75 kg
B
78 kg
C
80 kg
D
81 kg
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
X and Y started a business by investing Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively. After 4 months, Z joined with Rs.
100,000. At the end of the year, what is Z's share in a profit of Rs. 62,000?
A
Rs. 18,000
B
Rs. 20,000
C
Rs. 24,000
D
Rs. 30,000
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
Two right prisms have the same height of 12 cm. One has an equilateral triangle base with side 8 cm, and the
other has a square base with side 8 cm. What is the ratio of their volumes?
A
√3:4
B
3√3:4
C
4:√3
D
3:4√3
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
If cosB = p/q and B ∈ (0, π/2), then what is sinB in terms of p and q ?
A
√𝑞2−𝑝2
𝑞
B
√𝑞2+𝑝2
𝑝
C
√𝑞2−𝑝2
𝑝
D
𝑝
√𝑞2−𝑝2
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
You earn $75.00 in 2.5 hours. Find your hourly wage as a fraction.
A
25/1
B
30/1
C
45/2
D
150/7
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
A chord of length 30 cm lies 8 cm away from the center of a circle. What is the approximate radius of the circle?
A
13 cm
B
15 cm
C
17 cm
D
20 cm
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
A rectangular sheet has an area equal to a square plot. If the sheet measures 64 m in length and 25 m in breadth,
and the square plot has an area equal to the sheet, find the perimeter of the square plot.
A
120 m
B
140 m
C
160 m
D
180 m
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
A sum of money becomes 2.25 times itself in 2 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?
A
40%
B
50%
C
60%
D
75%
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A chord CD of a circle has a length of 12 cm. The angle subtended by the chord at a point E on the major arc is
45°. Find the radius of the circle.
A
6√2𝑐𝑚
B
8 cm
C
8√2𝑐𝑚
D
12 cm
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
In a triangle PQR, side QR is extended to a point S. The exterior angle at R is 120°. The interior angles at P and Q
are in the ratio 3:5. What is the measure of the largest interior angle of the triangle?
A
45°
B
60°
C
75°
D
80°
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
The area of a regular triangle increases by 69%. By what percentage did the side length increase?
A
25%
B
35%
C
34.5%
D
30%
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
P and Q together can do a piece of work in 15 days. P alone can do it in 24 days. In how many days can Q alone
do it?
A
36
B
38
C
40
D
42
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
If cosA = -4/5 and A lies in the 3rd quadrant, then find the value of cosA × cscA.
A
3/4
B
4/3
C
-4/3
D
-3/4
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
Consider two triangles, △KLM and △XYZ. It is stated that these two triangles are congruent to each other, which
is denoted as △KLM ≅ △XYZ and ∠K = 65°, what is the measure of ∠X?
A
55°
B
60°
C
65°
D
115°
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
The difference between 25% of a number and 15% of the same number is 150. What is the number?
A
1000
B
1200
C
1500
D
1800
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
Two numbers are in the ratio 7:4. If the difference between them is 24, find the numbers.
A
63 and 39
B
70 and 46
C
56 and 32
D
84 and 60
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
Given, 𝑥 +
1
𝑥 = 6, then determine the value of
4𝑥
𝑥2−1.
A
√2
2
B
2√2
3
C
√3
2
D
√2
4
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
What is the length of the segment joining (2,3) and (8,11)?
A
8
B
9
C
12
D
10
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
A man buys a set of 4 identical items at a total cost of Rs. 8,000. He sells them at Rs. 2,200, Rs. 2,000, Rs. 1,900,
and Rs. 1,800, respectively. What is the overall profit or loss?
A
Rs. 100 profit
B
Rs. 200 loss
C
Rs. 200 profit
D
Rs. 100 loss
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
A bucket can hold 8 liters of water . How many such buckets are needed to fill a 2 cubic meter tank?
A
200
B
225
C
250
D
275
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
Prakash and Rahul start from the same point and walk at 6 km/h and 8 km/h respectively, in the same direction.
What will be the distance between them after 3 hours?
A
4 km
B
5 km
C
6 km
D
8 km
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (1)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of
bureaucratic (1) _____—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological
reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices
and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi-
stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point
where they attain the malleability of (2) _____. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to
illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are
laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _____ into ‘capacity-building
opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What
surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge
hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _____ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility
to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones,
absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its
culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities.
Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) _____ posing as stewardship.
A
remedies
B
directives
C
instruments
D
lubricants
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (2)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of
bureaucratic (1) _____—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological
reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices
and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi-
stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point
where they attain the malleability of (2) _____. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to
illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are
laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _____ into ‘capacity-building
opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What
surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge
hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _____ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility
to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones,
absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its
culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities.
Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) _____ posing as stewardship.
A
legislation
B
rhetoric
C
tradition
D
vision
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (3)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of
bureaucratic (1) _____—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological
reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices
and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi-
stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point
where they attain the malleability of (2) _____. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to
illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are
laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _____ into ‘capacity-building
opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What
surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge
hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _____ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility
to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones,
absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its
culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities.
Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) _____ posing as stewardship.
A
projected
B
distorted
C
domesticated
D
suppressed
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (4)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of
bureaucratic (1) _____—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological
reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices
and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi-
stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point
where they attain the malleability of (2) _____. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to
illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are
laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _____ into ‘capacity-building
opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What
surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge
hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _____ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility
to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones,
absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its
culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities.
Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) _____ posing as stewardship.
A
amplified
B
archived
C
tokenized
D
rejected
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (5)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of
bureaucratic (1) _____—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological
reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices
and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi-
stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point
where they attain the malleability of (2) _____. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to
illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are
laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _____ into ‘capacity-building
opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What
surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge
hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _____ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility
to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones,
absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its
culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities.
Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) _____ posing as stewardship.
A
erosion
B
camouflage
C
pageantry
D
compliance
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The seminary archivist carefully restored the breviarium found in the vestry.
A
The novice was asked to memorise passages from the breviarium.
B
A tattered breviarium lay open on the abbot's reading desk.
C
The technician calibrated the breviarium using voltmeters.
D
The bishop presented an ornate breviarium to the visiting clergy.
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Fear of confined spaces'.
A
Acrophobia
B
Claustrophobia
C
Hydrophobia
D
Agoraphobia
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the underlined part of the sentence:
The elderly woman died by a sudden cardiac arrest.
A
was dead due to
B
died of
C
had died with
D
is dead from
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition:
His refusal to acknowledge the audit findings was tantamount _____ a deliberate cover-up.
A
at
B
to
C
for
D
with
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Question 85 of 100
Arrange the following sentences in the correct sequence to form a coherent passage.
1. These developments fundamentally altered the practice of modern medicine.
2. Alexander Fleming's identification of penicillin opened a new chapter in medical science.
3. For the first time, physicians had a reliable tool against life-threatening bacterial infections.
4. Diseases that had claimed millions of lives were now rendered manageable and treatable.
A
2-4-1-3
B
3-4-2-1
C
2-1-3-4
D
2-3-4-1
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:
SENTIENT
A
Animate
B
Numb
C
Feeble
D
Conscious
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A place where coins are made'.
A
Kiln
B
Forge
C
Mint
D
Depot
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
Change the following sentence from active to passive voice:
Historians regarded the manuscript as a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence.
A
The manuscript was a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence.
B
Medieval jurisprudence was regarded as definitive in the manuscript.
C
A definitive record of medieval jurisprudence was regarded by historians in the manuscript.
D
The manuscript was regarded as a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence by historians.
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
Dissemble
A
Simulate
B
Reveal
C
Conceal
D
Falsify
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Select the correct spelling of a word meaning 'having a strong, regular beat'.
A
Rhytmic
B
Rhythmic
C
Rhythimic
D
Rythmic
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. Choose the option that most accurately represents it in indirect speech.
Rita said, "Hurrah! We have won the tournament."
A
Rita exclaimed sadly that they had won the tournament.
B
Rita said that we have won the tournament.
C
Rita exclaimed with joy that they had won the tournament.
D
Rita said in joy that I have won the tournament.
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. Choose the option that most accurately represents it in direct speech.
The archaeologist stated that the artefacts were of pre-Harappan origin.
A
"The artefacts are of pre-Harappan origin," he stated.
B
The archaeologist said, "The artefacts are of pre-Harappan origin."
C
The archaeologist stated, "The artefacts were discovered recently."
D
"Pre-Harappan artefacts are rare," said the archaeologist.
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
Arrange the following sentences in the correct sequence to form a coherent passage:
1. The Renaissance signalled a renewed engagement with ancient Greek and Roman thought.
2. Sculptors and painters broke from religious abstraction towards lifelike representation.
3. Wealthy merchant families and city-states became enthusiastic patrons of the arts.
4. Together, these forces transformed the cultural and philosophical foundations of Europe.
A
2-1-3-4
B
1-3-2-4
C
2-3-1-4
D
1-2-3-4
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the underlined part of the sentence:
The police is searching the building for evidence.
A
are searching the building for evidence
B
searches the building
C
were searching for evidence the building
D
is in search
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
Select the correct spelling of a word meaning 'undoubtedly true'.
A
Incontrovurtible
B
Incontrovartible
C
Incontrovatible
D
Incontrovertible
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Identify the part of the given sentence that has a grammatical error:
Neither the principal nor the students (1)/ has completed (2)/ their assigned fieldwork (3)/ before the scheduled
deadline. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word:
The editor found the revised draft _____ verbose to be published without further cuts.
A
quite
B
very
C
too
D
so
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
Rewrite the following sentence by changing it from passive voice to active voice:
A certificate of merit will be awarded to all employees by the management next month.
A
The management had awarded a certificate of merit to all employees.
B
The management gives a certificate of merit to all employees.
C
The management will award a certificate of merit to all employees next month.
D
A certificate of merit was being awarded to all employees by the management.
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
To sup with the devil
A
To repent sincerely in private
B
To seek revenge against enemies
C
To deal with or associate with a dangerous or unscrupulous person
D
To enforce a rule without mercy
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
Cook someone's goose
A
To rescue someone from defeat
B
To help someone gain an advantage
C
Ruin someone's plans or prospects
D
To embarrass someone publicly
Clear Selection