Question 1 of 100
You are a teacher in an examination hall. A student is found cheating. What should you do first?
A
Ignore
B
Warn and confiscate material
C
Expel immediately
D
Announce publicly
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
While traveling in a bus, you notice a pickpocket. What will you do?
A
Ignore
B
Inform police or conductor
C
Record video only
D
Leave quietly
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
If 8 @ 4 = 96 and 6 @ 3 = 54, what is 5 @ 2?
A
45
B
41
C
35
D
40
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
From the given words, select the word that can be formed using the letters of the given word.
MASTERPIECE
A
MASTER
B
PARCEL
C
STREAMING
D
SPARED
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
What comes next?
BQC, CRD, DSE, ETF, ?
A
FUG
B
FVG
C
GVG
D
GWH
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
Find the odd one out in the series:
A
P16#
B
Q17#
C
H5#
D
R18#
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
In a certain code, “sun rises in east” is written as “ka lo mi su” “moon rises at night” is written as “pa lo ti ra” “stars
in night sky” is written as “mi ra xe zo” “sun and moon shine” is written as “ka pa gi hu”. Which of the following may
represent ‘sky rises at east’?
A
pa lo ti su
B
zo lo ti mi
C
zo lo ti su
D
zo pa lo su
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.
Statement:
1. Some cars are bikes.
2. All bikes are vehicles.
3. No vehicle is electric.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are not electric.
II. Some vehicles are cars.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
Sample Address: D.No. 7-45, Lakshmi Nagar, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh - 520010
A
Door No. 7-45, Lakshmi Nagar, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh - 520010
B
D.No. 7-54, Lakshmi Nagar, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh - 520010
C
D.No. 7-45, Laxmi Nagar, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh - 520010
D
D.No. 7-45, Lakshmi Nagar, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh - 520010
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
Which of the following prefixes can complete all three words meaningfully?
_USE, _PLACE, _FORM
A
RE
B
DE
C
IN
D
UN
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
Read the following statement carefully and identify the action that follows.
Statements: An employee repeatedly arrives late to work.
Course of Action:
1. Give warning and counseling.
2. Terminate immediately.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both follow
D
Neither follows
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
In this mathematical expression, the symbols have been replaced by code symbols. Find the value of the
expression: 4 * 5 # 2 @ 6
Symbol Actual Operator: * = -, @ = +, # = × and & = ÷
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
M is the sister of N. N is the brother of O. O is the mother of P . How is M related to P?
A
Aunt
B
Mother
C
Sister
D
Grandmother
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
A is the father of B. B is the brother of C. How is A related to C?
A
Uncle
B
Father
C
Grandfather
D
Cousin
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
The series given below contains a sequence of numbers. Accordingly identify the incorrect combination.
6, 11, 33, 39, 115, 119, 357
A
33,357
B
119,357
C
39, 115
D
114,357
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?
18 - 6 × 20 ÷ 5 + 3 = 58
A
+ and -
B
× and -
C
- and ÷
D
÷ and ×
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
What should come at the place of question mark?
169, 121, ?, 49, 25, 9
A
81
B
90
C
95
D
88
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
Find the missing term.
4, 8, 24, 96, 480, ?
A
2400
B
1920
C
2880
D
3600
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If the signs are interchanged as follows: ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’ means ‘÷’. Which equation
is incorrect after applying these symbol transformations?
A
8 + 2 × 3 - 4 = 17
B
6 × 4 + 2 ÷ 2 = 14
C
10 - 5 + 3 × 2 = 23
D
12 ÷ 3 + 2 - 1 = 9
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation will NOT be correct? × and ÷
I. 24 ÷ 4 - 12 × 2 + 6 = 18
II. 15 ÷ 5 × 9 + 10 - 8 = 19
A
Only I
B
Both I and II
C
Neither I nor II
D
Only II
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
A product is originally priced at ₹3,000. A discount of 10% is applied to the original price. After the discount, 10%
GST is charged on the discounted price. What is the net amount paid for the product?
A
₹2790
B
₹2640
C
₹2850
D
₹2970
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
series:
DFH, EGI, FHJ, ?
A
GIK
B
GJL
C
GHK
D
HJL
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
A
Ashoka
B
Akbar
C
Shivaji
D
Rabindranath Tagore
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
Statements:
1. Some fruits are apples.
2. Some apples are sweet.
Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are sweet.
II. All apples being fruits is a possibility.
A
Only Conclusion II follows
B
Only Conclusion I follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
If ‘GAME’ is coded as ‘7-1-13-5’, how will ‘EMAG’ be coded?
A
5-13-1-7
B
13-5-7-1
C
5-1-7-13
D
7-13-5-1
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Why did the Indian government prioritize the development of Heavy Industries in the Second Five -Year Plan
(1956–1961)?
A
To reduce the dependence on agricultural exports
B
To achieve self-reliance and rapid industrialization
C
To decrease the role of the public sector
D
To encourage the import of consumer goods
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
Which digital initiative was introduced under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act for grievance redressal?
A
Manual filing of complaints
B
Establishment of a Consent Manager framework
C
Compulsory offline verification of data
D
Abolition of digital signatures
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Consider the statements about Sattriya:
1. It is a classical dance form of Assam, traditionally performed in monasteries (Sattras).
2. It was introduced by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankaradev. Which is/are correct?
A
Only 1 correct
B
Only 2 correct
C
Both 1 & 2 correct
D
Neither 1 nor 2 correct
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
Who was appointed as the Chairperson of the State Bank of India (SBI) in early 2025?
A
Dinesh Khara
B
CS Setty
C
Rajnish Kumar
D
Arundhati Bhattacharya
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1. Jalal-ud-din Khalji was the founder of the Khalji Dynasty.
Statement 2. The Tughlaq dynasty was established immediately following the end of the Slave Dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
Which of the following best reflects a distinct cultural feature of the Festival of Salhesh?
A
Harvest ceremonies involving animal sacrifice by elders in Mithila
B
Dramatic retelling of Salhesh legends by a Bhagat and Manarias
C
Buddhist chants invoking Salhesh for monsoon rains
D
Sword dances performed by women warriors in tribal hill regions
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
Fill in the blanks: A Bill that deals with the "appointment or removal of a Governor" is treated in Parliament as an
__________ Bill.
A
Money
B
Ordinary
C
Financial (Category I)
D
Appropriation
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
What does ASSOCHAM stand for?
A
Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India
B
Association of Small Scale Chambers of Commerce and Management
C
All State Society of Commerce and Human Management
D
Association of Scientific and Social Chambers of India
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
Which Indian state is famous for the traditional buffalo race known as "Kambala"?
A
Kerala
B
Karnataka
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Maharashtra
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Fill in the blank: The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was primarily intended to __________.
A
Restrict the freedom of non-English Indian newspapers
B
Promote education in local Indian languages
C
Provide subsidies to vernacular journalists
D
Regulate the printing of religious textbooks
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
Khudiram Bose, one of the youngest revolutionaries of the Indian independence movement, was executed by the
British at what age?
A
15 years old
B
18 years old
C
21 years old
D
25 years old
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
What is the primary objective of the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project?
A
Connecting India's West Coast to the Persian Gulf
B
Linking Kolkata port with Sittwe port in Myanmar
C
Creating a direct rail link between Delhi and Hanoi
D
Enhancing maritime security in the South China Sea
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
Which of the following accurately represents India's performance in the World Press Freedom Index 2024?
A
India achieved a rank in the top ten
B
India's rank improved to 100
C
India was ranked at 159th position
D
India remained at the same rank as 2010
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
The Surface Tension of a liquid:
A
Is a force per unit area, independent of temperature
B
Is a vector quantity, increasing with temperature
C
Is a scalar quantity, generally decreasing as temperature increases
D
Is a dimensionless constant for all fluids
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 263 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
2. The Inter-State Council is a permanent constitutional body.
3. It can discuss subjects of common interest between states and the Centre. Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
The 2024 Thomas Cup final, where India's men's badminton team showcased a historic performance, was held in
which city?
A
Bangkok
B
Chengdu
C
Jakarta
D
Kuala Lumpur
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
Consider the following statements about the book 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World':
1. It is authored by S. Jaishankar and discusses India's foreign policy challenges.
2. It focuses exclusively on India's internal agricultural reforms since 1947. Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A
Only statement 1 is correct
B
Only statement 2 is correct
C
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
D
Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
Matangini Hazra, an elderly revolutionary, was martyred while leading a procession during the "Quit India
Movement" in which town of West Bengal?
A
Midnapore (Tamluk)
B
Chittagong
C
Barrackpore
D
Darjeeling
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
Which architectural features define the distinct style of the Konark Sun Temple?
A
Marble minarets and central domes
B
Stepped pyramids and wooden balconies
C
Chariot-shaped structure with carved stone wheels
D
Stucco figures and sloping thatched roofs
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
Which of the following is the most reliable literary source for the Mauryan administration?
A
Harshacharita of Banabhatta
B
Rajatarangini of Kalhana
C
Arthashastra of Kautilya
D
Vikramankadevacharita of Bilhana
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
Under the "Namami Gange" program, which state was recognized in 2025 for implementing the most successful
'Ganga Gram' model for village-level sanitation?
A
Bihar
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Uttarakhand
D
West Bengal
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
Which of the following is another name for the "Capital Account" of the government budget?
A
Asset budget
B
Operating budget
C
Capital budget
D
Consumption budget
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully: Assertion (A): The 'Loo' is a strong, gusty, hot, and dry
wind blowing during the day over northern India. Reason (R): It is caused by the intense heating of the land surface
during the summer months.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
Which Indian wrestler won the bronze medal in the Men's 57kg freestyle category at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
A
Aman Sehrawat
B
Bajrang Punia
C
Ravi Kumar Dahiya
D
Deepak Punia
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
Under Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), how many diseases are covered for free immunization nationally
and sub-nationally?
A
5
B
7
C
9
D
12
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
What is the minimum distance from the origin (0,0) to a point on the line segment connecting the points A(6, 0)
and B(0, 8)?
A
3.6
B
4.2
C
4.8
D
5.4
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
If the numerical value of the volume of a cube is equal to the numerical value of its surface area, find the side
length of the cube.
A
3 units
B
4 units
C
6 units
D
8 units
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
The average weight of 12 boxes is 20 kg. If the heaviest box weighs 25 kg and the lightest weighs 11 kg, what is
the average weight of the remaining boxes?
A
19.8 kg
B
20.4 kg
C
20.6 kg
D
21.2 kg
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
A person invested in two items – one gave a 15% profit and the other a 10% loss. If the total investment was Rs.
8,000 and the net result was a Rs. 200 profit, what was the investment in the profit-making item?
A
Rs. 3,000
B
Rs. 4,000
C
Rs. 4,500
D
Rs. 5,000
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
The population of a town increases by 5% annually. If the current population is 44,100, what was it two years ago
(approx)?
A
40,000
B
41,000
C
42,000
D
43,000
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
The line segment from the center of a circle to the midpoint of a chord is 8 cm long. If the radius is 17 cm, what
is the length of the chord?
A
15 cm
B
20 cm
C
25 cm
D
30 cm
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
If cosec𝜃+cot𝜃 = 3, then what is cosec𝜃 −cot𝜃= ?
A
1/3
B
2/3
C
3
D
1
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to three times itself in 5 years. In how many years will
it become 27 times itself?
A
12 years
B
15 years
C
18 years
D
20 years
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
Find the slope of the line passing through points (–3, 4) and (5, –2).
A
3/4
B
–3/4
C
4/3
D
–4/3
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
A runner completes 10.8 km in 54 minutes. What is his speed in km/h?
A
10 km/h
B
12 km/h
C
14 km/h
D
15 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
Which of the following numbers belongs to Rational and Real sets, but NOT to Integers?
A
–4
B
0
C
2.5
D
√3
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
A mixture of 200 litres contains acid and water in the ratio 3:2. If 40 litres of the mixture is replaced with water,
what will be the percentage of acid in the final mixture?
A
42%
B
45%
C
48%
D
50%
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A water tank is shaped like a composite solid: the bottom part is a cylinder with a base area of 50 cm² and height
2m, while the top part is a rectangular prism with base 20 cm × 30 cm and height 1.5 m. What is the total volume of
the tank in liters? (1 m³ = 1000 L)
A
80 L
B
90 L
C
100 L
D
110 L
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
A chord of a circle subtends an angle of 80° at the center . What is the angle subtended at a point on the circle in
the major segment?
A
30°
B
40°
C
60°
D
80°
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
Three friends share a winning prize in the ratio 3:5:7. If the total prize is Rs. 15000, how much more does the
person with the highest share get than the lowest?
A
Rs. 3000
B
Rs. 5000
C
Rs. 4500
D
Rs. 4000
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
If in △𝐴𝐵𝐶 and △ DEF, AB = DE, ∠B = ∠ E, and BC = EF, which rule proves △ ABC≅△ DEF?
A
SSS
B
SAS
C
ASA
D
RHS
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
What is the simplified value of: 0.000045÷0.009
A
5×10−2
B
5×10−3
C
5×10−4
D
5×10−5
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
You earn 84.00 in 4.5 hours. Find your hourly wage as a fraction.
A
52/3
B
56/3
C
48/5
D
64/5
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
An athlete runs a 200-meter race in 20 seconds. How much is his speed in km/h?
A
36 km/h
B
40 km/h
C
45 km/h
D
30 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
A machine can fill 150 juice boxes in 5 minutes. How many juice boxes can it fill in 12 minutes?
A
300 juice boxes
B
480 juice boxes
C
400 juice boxes
D
360 juice boxes
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
If tan𝐴 = 𝑥 −
1
𝑥, then what is sec2 𝐴= ?
A
𝑥2 +
1
𝑥2 −1
B
𝑥2 +
1
𝑥2 −2
C
𝑥2 +
1
𝑥2 +1
D
𝑥2 −
1
𝑥2
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
A group of 4 men or 6 women can complete a task in 40 days. Find the time taken by 4 men and 6 women to
complete the task.
A
15 Days
B
20 Days
C
24 Days
D
30 Days
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
The value of
1
√7−√5 −
1
√7+√5 is:
A
√5
B
2√5
C
√7
D
2√7
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
Partners P and Q entered into a business investing Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively. After 4 months, R joins
with Rs. 1,20,000. At year-end, the profit was Rs. 1,10,000. How much more did R earn than P?
A
Rs. 5,000
B
Rs. 8,000
C
Rs. 10,000
D
Rs. 12,000
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
A triangular garden has base and height in the ratio 3:4. If the area is 216 m², what are the base and height?
A
15 m and 20 m
B
18 m and 24 m
C
21 m and 28 m
D
24 m and 32 m
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (1)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Philosophy, rather than offering a settled cartography of truths, functions as a perpetual inquiry through which reason
endeavours to (1) _____, the nature of existence, knowledge, and moral value. Thinkers across centuries have not
merely received ideas b ut actively (2) _____ them — interrogating, dismantling, and reconstituting foundational
assumptions with rigour . The act of philosophical questioning demands a sustained willingness to relinquish certainty,
for every argument ultimately rests upon premises that remain open to (3) _____. What appears self -evident within
one epistemic moment may, in retrospect, be revealed as a product of cultural conditioning rather than universal
reason. Rationalism and empiricism, once perceived as irreconcilable opposite s, have over time been (4) _____ into
more nuanced frameworks that acknowledge the constitutive limits of both pure reason and sensory experience. In
this light, the philosopher's task is not to arrive at final pronouncements but to perpetually refine the question —
ensuring that inquiry remains (5) _____ rather than calcifying into doctrine.
A
circumscribe
B
validate
C
interrogate
D
replicate
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (2)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Philosophy, rather than offering a settled cartography of truths, functions as a perpetual inquiry through which reason
endeavours to (1) _____, the nature of existence, knowledge, and moral value. Thinkers across centuries have not
merely received ideas b ut actively (2) _____ them — interrogating, dismantling, and reconstituting foundational
assumptions with rigour . The act of philosophical questioning demands a sustained willingness to relinquish certainty,
for every argument ultimately rests upon premises that remain open to (3) _____. What appears self -evident within
one epistemic moment may, in retrospect, be revealed as a product of cultural conditioning rather than universal
reason. Rationalism and empiricism, once perceived as irreconcilable opposite s, have over time been (4) _____ into
more nuanced frameworks that acknowledge the constitutive limits of both pure reason and sensory experience. In
this light, the philosopher's task is not to arrive at final pronouncements but to perpetually refine the question —
ensuring that inquiry remains (5) _____ rather than calcifying into doctrine.
A
consecrated
B
contested
C
transmitted
D
catalogued
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (3)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Philosophy, rather than offering a settled cartography of truths, functions as a perpetual inquiry through which reason
endeavours to (1) _____, the nature of existence, knowledge, and moral value. Thinkers across centuries have not
merely received ideas b ut actively (2) _____ them — interrogating, dismantling, and reconstituting foundational
assumptions with rigour . The act of philosophical questioning demands a sustained willingness to relinquish certainty,
for every argument ultimately rests upon premises that remain open to (3) _____. What appears self -evident within
one epistemic moment may, in retrospect, be revealed as a product of cultural conditioning rather than universal
reason. Rationalism and empiricism, once perceived as irreconcilable opposite s, have over time been (4) _____ into
more nuanced frameworks that acknowledge the constitutive limits of both pure reason and sensory experience. In
this light, the philosopher's task is not to arrive at final pronouncements but to perpetually refine the question —
ensuring that inquiry remains (5) _____ rather than calcifying into doctrine.
A
validation
B
consensus
C
scrutiny
D
reverence
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (4)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Philosophy, rather than offering a settled cartography of truths, functions as a perpetual inquiry through which reason
endeavours to (1) _____, the nature of existence, knowledge, and moral value. Thinkers across centuries have not
merely received ideas b ut actively (2) _____ them — interrogating, dismantling, and reconstituting foundational
assumptions with rigour . The act of philosophical questioning demands a sustained willingness to relinquish certainty,
for every argument ultimately rests upon premises that remain open to (3) _____. What appears self -evident within
one epistemic moment may, in retrospect, be revealed as a product of cultural conditioning rather than universal
reason. Rationalism and empiricism, once perceived as irreconcilable opposite s, have over time been (4) _____ into
more nuanced frameworks that acknowledge the constitutive limits of both pure reason and sensory experience. In
this light, the philosopher's task is not to arrive at final pronouncements but to perpetually refine the question —
ensuring that inquiry remains (5) _____ rather than calcifying into doctrine.
A
fragmented
B
isolated
C
synthesised
D
abandoned
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
. What should come in the place of blank number (5)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Philosophy, rather than offering a settled cartography of truths, functions as a perpetual inquiry through which reason
endeavours to (1) _____, the nature of existence, knowledge, and moral value. Thinkers across centuries have not
merely received ideas b ut actively (2) _____ them — interrogating, dismantling, and reconstituting foundational
assumptions with rigour . The act of philosophical questioning demands a sustained willingness to relinquish certainty,
for every argument ultimately rests upon premises that remain open to (3) _____. What appears self -evident within
one epistemic moment may, in retrospect, be revealed as a product of cultural conditioning rather than universal
reason. Rationalism and empiricism, once perceived as irreconcilable opposite s, have over time been (4) _____ into
more nuanced frameworks that acknowledge the constitutive limits of both pure reason and sensory experience. In
this light, the philosopher's task is not to arrive at final pronouncements but to perpetually refine the question —
ensuring that inquiry remains (5) _____ rather than calcifying into doctrine.
A
dormant
B
rigorous
C
conclusive
D
partisan
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
Choose the correct one -word substitute for: 'A discipline concerned with the study of humanity, including its
origins, behaviour, and social organisation'.
A
Sociology
B
Ethnology
C
Demography
D
Anthropology
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
The board demanded that the auditor to submit the revised report immediately.
A
submits
B
submit
C
should submits
D
had submitted
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.
1. Deforestation disrupts natural ecosystems and accelerates soil erosion.
2. Sustainable forest management requires the cooperation of governments, industries, and local communities.
3. Forests are among the most vital ecosystems on Earth, housing a vast diversity of species.
4. Without immediate intervention, irreversible damage to biodiversity will continue to mount.
A
1-3-2-4
B
3-1-4-2
C
3-2-1-4
D
2-3-1-4
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys
the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
She said to him, "Can you explain this concept to me?"
A
She asked him if he can explain this concept to her .
B
She said if he could explain that concept to her .
C
She asked him whether he could explain that concept to her .
D
She told him could he explain this concept to her .
Clear Selection
Question 85 of 100
Select the correct one-word substitute for: 'A formal speech of high praise delivered in honour of a person who
has recently died'.
A
Elegy
B
Panegyric
C
Eulogy
D
Dirge
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Nugatory
A
Trifling
B
Inconsequential
C
Negligible
D
Substantial
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
Select the most accurate meaning of the idiom:
By the skin of one's teeth
A
By means of cunning and deceit
B
With the barest possible margin
C
With great confidence and ease
D
By sheer inherited fortune
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
The arbitrator concluded that the (1)/ dispute centred on the principle (2)/ issue of property rights rather than (3)/ any
procedural irregularity. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:
The letter had been signed by the ambassador before the delegation arrived.
A
The ambassador signs the letter before the delegation arrives.
B
The ambassador had signed the letter before the delegation arrived.
C
The letter was being signed by the ambassador when the delegation arrived.
D
The ambassador will have signed the letter before the delegation arrives.
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Change the following from active to passive:
The principal let the students leave the examination hall before time.
A
The examination hall was left by the students before time.
B
The students were permitted leaving the examination hall before time.
C
The students were allowed to leave the examination hall before time.
D
The principal was letting the students leave the hall before time.
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
Identify the correct interpretation of the following idiom:
Mad as a hatter
A
Excessively cautious and reserved
B
Deeply melancholic and withdrawn
C
Completely insane or eccentric
D
Highly ambitious and ruthless
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The archaeologist unearthed a ceremonial stele near the ancient ruins.
A
The museum curator examined the inscribed stele with meticulous care.
B
The historian deciphered the reliefs carved upon the commemorative stele.
C
The botanist observed that the stele of the plant regulates water and nutrient transport.
D
The priest consecrated the memorial stele at the village shrine.
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
1. International trade facilitates the exchange of goods and services across national boundaries.
2. Tariffs and trade agreements play a decisive role in shaping the volume and direction of such exchanges.
3. It enables countries to specialise in the production of goods they can manufacture most efficiently.
4. Consequently, nations become economically interdependent, making global cooperation indispensable.
A
1, 3, 2, 4
B
3, 1, 4, 2
C
2, 1, 3, 4
D
1, 2, 3, 4
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
Select the correct spelling of a word meaning 'complex administrative system'.
A
Beurocracy
B
Bureoucracy
C
Bureaucracy
D
Bureaucarcy
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: TRENCHANT
A
Ambiguous
B
Feeble
C
Incisive
D
Hazy
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Select the correct option:
Not until the rescue team reached the stranded hikers _____ the severity of the situation fully understood.
A
was
B
had
C
did
D
has
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
Choose the correct spelling of a word meaning 'harmless'.
A
Inocuous
B
Innocuous
C
Innoccuous
D
Innocuos
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
Choose the correct comparison structure:
Seldom had the panel encountered a report _____ comprehensive as this one.
A
too
B
so
C
as
D
that
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
She inquired where does the principal live.
A
where the principal lives
B
where did the principal live
C
where the principal lived
D
where does the principal lived
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately
conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.
The scientist claimed that her research had overturned decades of established theory.
A
"My research overturns decades of established theory," the scientist claimed.
B
The scientist said, "My research has overturned decades of established theory."
C
"The research had overturned decades of theory," she said.
D
The scientist said, "Her research had overturned decades of established theory."
Clear Selection