Question 1 of 100
Statement:
1. All pens are stationery.
2. Some stationery are costly.
3. All costly items are taxed.
Conclusions:
I. Some stationery are taxed.
II. Some pens are costly.
A
only I follows
B
only II follows
C
both I and II follow
D
neither I nor II follows
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
Find the next term: ACEG, CEGI, EGIK, ?
A
GIKM
B
IKMO
C
GILM
D
HJLN
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
Find the odd one out:
A
Parliament
B
Assembly
C
Judiciary
D
Constitution
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
“NACHTEN” is to “ENCHANT” as “LPAEYD” is to:
A
PEALYD
B
PALEYD
C
YELAPD
D
PLAYED
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
What should come next?
150, 130, 112, 96, 82, ?
A
70
B
68
C
72
D
66
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
Find the odd one out:
A
4 # 5 = 81
B
6 # 7 = 169
C
3 # 4 = 49
D
2 # 3 = 16
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
If BOOK is written as CPPL, how is LAMP written?
A
MBNQ
B
MBNO
C
KZLO
D
OCPR
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
Sample Address: Tower-3, Flat 904, Sunrise Residency, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
A
Tower-3, Flat 904, Sunrise Residency, Sector 12, Noida - 201302
B
Tower-3, Flat 904, Sunrise Residncy, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
C
Tower-3, Flat 904, Sunrise Residency, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
D
Tower-3, Flat 905, Sunrise Residency, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
You find a lost mobile phone in a park. What should you do?
A
ignore it
B
sell it
C
keep it
D
try to return it to the owner
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
EDUCATION
A
ACTION
B
CAUTION
C
DONATE
D
EDUCATE
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
What comes next?
BDF, EGI, HJL, ?
A
KMO
B
LNP
C
JKM
D
MPR
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
You are in charge of a library and notice smoke. What should you do?
A
evacuate people immediately
B
ignore it
C
lock doors
D
continue working
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
You are a bank employee. A customer reports fraud. What should you do first?
A
ignore complaint
B
report immediately to higher authority
C
delay action
D
ask customer to come later
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
Statements:
1. No cat is a dog.
2. Some dogs are pets.
Conclusions:
I. Some pets are not cats.
II. No pet is a cat.
A
only I follows.
B
only II follows.
C
both I and II follow.
D
neither I nor II follows.
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘-’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, and ‘÷’ means ‘-’, choose the correct equation:
A
8 × 4 - 2 = 10
B
6 + 2 - 4 = 4
C
12 ÷ 3 - 2 = 6
D
9 - 3 × 2 = 3
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
If PLANE is coded as QMBOF, how is QMBOF coded?
A
RNCPG
B
RNCQG
C
RNCOG
D
RNCRG
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
In the sequence, what is the next number?
5, 15, 45, 135, 405, ___?
A
810
B
1215
C
1620
D
2025
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
If ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, evaluate:
180 + 30 × 6 - 15 ÷ 5 = ?
A
295
B
250
C
260
D
255
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If “MATH” is coded as “13-1-20-8”, how will “HAMT” be coded?
A
8-1-13-20
B
1-8-20-13
C
13-20-1-8
D
20-8-1-13
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
If 4 workers take 4 days to build 4 walls, how long will 50 workers take to build 50 walls?
A
4 days
B
50 days
C
25 days
D
10 days
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
If “+” means subtraction, “-” means addition, “×” means division, and “÷” means multiplication, evaluate:
20 - 4 × 2 + 6 ÷ 3 = ?
A
4
B
2
C
8
D
6
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘-’ means ‘+’, and ‘×’ means ‘-’, find the value:
12 + 3 - 2 × 1 = ?
A
48
B
37
C
36
D
24
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
Find the signs to be interchanged.
24 ÷ 6 + 5 - 4 × 3 = 21
A
÷ and -
B
+ and ×
C
× and ÷
D
- and ×
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
A is the father of B. B is the mother of C. D is the daughter of A. How is D related to C?
A
aunt
B
mother
C
sister
D
cousin
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
P is the brother of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the daughter of S. How is P related to S?
A
son
B
father
C
brother
D
uncle
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Who is serving as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India as of 2026?
A
Girish Chandra Murmu
B
Rajiv Mehrishi
C
K. Sanjay Murthy
D
Vinod Rai
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
Consider the following statements about Nautanki:
1. It is a popular folk-theatre form of North India, especially associated with Uttar Pradesh.
2. It traditionally combines music, dance and dramatic dialogue in open-air performances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Only 1 correct
B
Only 2 correct
C
Both 1 and 2 correct
D
Neither 1 nor 2 correct
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Arrange the Mughal emperors in chronological order of their reign:
A
Akbar – Jahangir – Shah Jahan
B
Jahangir – Akbar – Shah Jahan
C
Shah Jahan – Akbar – Jahangir
D
Akbar – Shah Jahan – Jahangir
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
Under PM Jan Dhan Yojana, the maximum accidental insurance cover provided initially was:
A
₹50,000
B
₹1 lakh
C
₹2 lakh
D
₹5 lakh
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
Which of the following maritime chokepoints connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea?
A
Strait of Malacca
B
Strait of Hormuz
C
Suez Canal
D
Bosporus Strait
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
Which statement(s) about Kho-Kho is/are correct?
1. It originated in Maharashtra.
2. The modern rules were formalised in the early 20th century.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
A slowdown of the El Niño phenomenon in the Pacific Ocean is likely to:
A
Increase monsoon rainfall in India
B
Reduce global temperatures permanently
C
Eliminate cyclones completely
D
Stop ocean currents entirely
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
Fill in the blank:
The Rowlatt Act of 1919 authorised the government to ____.
A
Detain individuals without trial
B
Abolish provincial councils
C
Conduct free elections
D
Grant dominion status
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
Dr . Vikram Sarabhai is known as the father of which programme in India?
A
Nuclear Energy Programme
B
Green Revolution
C
Space Programme
D
White Revolution
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Which state topped the medal tally in the 37th National Games 2023 held in Goa?
A
Maharashtra
B
Haryana
C
Services Sports Control Board
D
Karnataka
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
At which Olympic Games did India win its first individual Olympic gold medal?
A
Athens 2004
B
Beijing 2008
C
London 2012
D
Rio 2016
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
Which of the following statements about coastal landforms is correct?
A
Fjords are formed by desert winds.
B
Stacks are formed due to marine erosion.
C
Moraines are coastal sand dunes.
D
Deltas are formed by glacial abrasion.
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 14 guarantees equality before law.
2. Article 19 provides certain fundamental freedoms.
3. Article 32 deals with amendment of the Constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
In economic planning, the term ‘rolling plan’ refers to:
A
A plan revised annually
B
A fixed five-year target
C
A plan without public sector role
D
A wartime emergency plan
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
Fiscal deficit is calculated as:
A
Total expenditure – Total receipts (excluding borrowings)
B
Revenue receipts – Revenue expenditure
C
Capital receipts – Capital expenditure
D
Direct taxes – Indirect taxes
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
A satellite in geostationary orbit must revolve around the Earth in approximately ____.
A
12 hours
B
18 hours
C
24 hours
D
36 hours
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
The Human Capital Index (HCI) is released by which organisation?
A
IMF
B
World Bank
C
WTO
D
UNDP
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
Which of the following best describes the core purpose of the Hornbill Festival of Nagaland?
A
Celebration of harvest with bull races
B
Promotion of tribal culture and heritage
C
Ritual worship of river spirits
D
Military victory commemoration
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
The famous Ashokan Lion Capital is located at which site?
A
Sanchi
B
Sarnath
C
Bodh Gaya
D
Amaravati
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
Which Act has replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973?
A
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
B
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
C
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
D
National Investigation Act
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
In the epic Ramayana, who accompanied Rama during his exile to the forest?
A
Bharata only
B
Lakshmana and Sita
C
Shatrughna only
D
Hanuman only
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
Who composed the song ‘Vande Mataram’?
A
Rabindranath Tagore
B
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
C
Subramania Bharati
D
Sarojini Naidu
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
Which Indian satellite series is primarily dedicated to navigation services?
A
GSAT
B
NAVIC/IRNSS
C
RISAT
D
Oceansat
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
What is the main focus of the book ‘The Argumentative Indian’ by Amartya Sen?
A
India’s space achievements
B
India’s democratic and intellectual traditions
C
Ancient trade networks
D
Modern military reforms
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
Fill in the blank:
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article ____ of the Constitution of India.
A
270
B
280
C
356
D
324
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
Add: 5.62 + 8.19 + 0.045
A
12.755
B
13.855
C
14.255
D
13.585
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
If △PQR ~ △STU, and ∠P = 45°, ∠Q = 75°, then ∠U = ?
A
45°
B
60°
C
75°
D
Cannot be determined
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
Find the value of x in the given equation: √8+𝑥+√8−𝑥
√8+𝑥−√8−𝑥 = 3
A
18/5
B
24/5
C
16/5
D
12/5
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
In a mixture of 100 litres of mango juice and water, the amount of water is 40 litres. How many litres of water
should be added to make the ratio of juice to water 1:2?
A
60 L
B
70 L
C
80 L
D
90 L
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
A bike travels 22.5 km using 2.5 liters of fuel. How many kilometers does it travel per liter?
A
8.5 km
B
9.0 km
C
9.5 km
D
10.0 km
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
P can do a piece of work in 5 days, and Q can do it in 10 days. If they work together for 2 days, how much of the
work will be left?
A
20%
B
30%
C
40%
D
50%
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
By an external point M, two tangents are drawn to a circle, touching the circle at points X and Y . The chord of
contact XY subtends an angle α at the center of the circle O. What is the angle ∠XMY between the tangents in terms
of α?
A
90° – α/2
B
α
C
180° – α
D
2α
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
A startup has three stakeholders. P brought 30% of the capital, and Q brought the rest. R joined later and was
promised 25% of the total profit for branding. If total profit was Rs. 4,00,000, how much was Q's share?
A
Rs. 1,90,000
B
Rs. 2,00,000
C
Rs. 2,10,000
D
Rs. 2,20,000
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
A display stand is shaped like a right triangular prism. The triangular base is a right -angled triangle with
perpendicular sides measuring 5 cm and 12 cm. The height of the prism is 20 cm. What is the ratio of the area of the
largest rectangular face to the area of the smallest rectangular face of the prism?
A
5:3
B
12:5
C
13:5
D
13:12
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
Two chords in a circle each measure 14 cm. If one of the chords is located 5 cm from the center, what is the
distance of the other chord from the center?
A
3 cm
B
4 cm
C
5 cm
D
7 cm
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
If x = √7 + 3, find the value of x² – 6√7.
A
14
B
15
C
16
D
17
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
Rohit covers half of his journey at 15 km/h and the remaining half at 10 km/h. His average speed is:
A
12 km/h
B
12.5 km/h
C
13 km/h
D
14 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A basket contains apples and oranges in the ratio 5:3. After removing 10 apples and adding 14 oranges, the new
ratio becomes 1:1. How many fruits were there originally?
A
80
B
112
C
104
D
96
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
If sin A = 3/5, find the value of sin4 𝐴+cos4 𝐴.
A
337/625
B
312/625
C
144/625
D
256/625
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
How much will the compound interest on Rs. 24000 at 16% per annum for 9 months if it is compounded quarterly?
A
2,887
B
3,107
C
3,012
D
2,997
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
A businessman invests Rs. 60,000 in buying items and spends Rs. 4,000 on transportation and Rs. 2,000 on
storage. If he sells the items for Rs. 74,250, what is the profit or loss percentage?
A
10.5% profit
B
12.5% loss
C
12.5% profit
D
15.0% profit
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
15 women can do a work in 20 days. 12 men can complete the same work in 10 days. What is the ratio between
the efficiency of a man and a woman?
A
3:2
B
5:2
C
4:3
D
5:3
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
A man covered a certain distance in 3 parts with average speeds of 20 km/h, 30 km/h, and 60 km/h. What is his
average speed over the entire journey, assuming equal distances?
A
30 km/h
B
35 km/h
C
40 km/h
D
45 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
X and Y can complete a task in 15 days together . X is 50% more efficient than Y . What percentage of the work is
done by X alone?
A
50%
B
55%
C
60%
D
65%
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
A number that is both an integer and a whole number is:
A
–7
B
0
C
2/3
D
√5
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
If sin A = 8/17 and A is acute, then what is the value of cos A?
A
15/17
B
17/15
C
8/15
D
15/8
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
A hemisphere is inscribed in a cube of side 8 cm. What is the volume of the hemisphere?
A
134.04 cm³
B
144.24 cm³
C
124.56 cm³
D
150.88 cm³
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
Two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal. If a pair of alternate interior angles is formed, and one of the
angles measures 115°, what is the measure of the other angle?
A
65°
B
90°
C
115°
D
180°
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
If a line passing through (2, –3) has a slope of 5, find its y-intercept.
A
–13
B
13
C
–10
D
10
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
A triangular window has dimensions such that its area is 60% of a square window of area 150 m². If its base is 15
m, find its height.
A
10 m
B
12 m
C
14 m
D
15 m
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
The director was accused for misusing company funds.
A
accused of misusing company funds
B
accused with misusing company funds
C
accused on misusing company funds
D
accused about misusing company funds
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Yeoman service
A
An act performed under compulsion
B
Loyal and invaluable assistance
C
A ceremonial military duty
D
A routine administrative task
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Coals of fire upon his head
A
To repay hostility with generosity
B
To expose someone publicly
C
To ignite anger deliberately
D
To condemn someone harshly
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
Select the correct spelling for a word meaning ‘lasting for a very short duration’.
A
Ephemerol
B
Ephemeral
C
Ephemerial
D
Ephemiral
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (1)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Metropolitan erosion is not merely the attrition of brick and mortar, but a palimpsest of deferred ambitions -where
facades and flyovers mutate into repositories of stalled futurities. Fissures, efflorescence, and skeletal scaffolding do
not simply erode st ructure; they recalibrate signification, converting vacancy into inscription and corrosion into (1)
______. Such spatial remnants resist the antiseptic linearity of redevelopment blueprints, proposing instead a fugitive
temporality-discordant, accreted, an d refractory. Within this interpretive frame, the ruin ceases to be a lapse in
engineering; it becomes an overcoded lexicon of disintegration. Its idiom reverberates through fractured masonry and
derelict signage, repudiating the veneer of municipal optimi sm. To aestheticize such degradation uncritically is to
engage in epistemic (2) ______—where dispossession is stylized and precarity rendered picturesque. What parades as
revitalization frequently entails spatial excision, evacuating memory in deference to speculative capital while
"preservation" morphs into curated sterilization. To approach ruins hermeneutically is to substitute instrumentality
with (3) ______—to permit debris to articulate what masterplans efface. These terrains solicit not embellishment but
critical excavation, wherein rusted girders and dormant corridors metamorphose into loci of semantic dissent. Yet
deterioration defies even romantic recuperation. It is not metaphor but material surplus —an excess that unsettles
containment. Commodification cannot assimilate it; sentimentality cannot fossilize it. It endures, insurgent and
mnemonic, as a (4) ______ grammar inscribed upon civic amnesia. The metropolis’s vestiges are not antiquities; they
are discursive ruptures —interruptions in the urban narrative that compel interpretation not as forfeiture, but as
infrastructural (5) ______.
A
effacement
B
legibility
C
fragility
D
desolation
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (2)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Metropolitan erosion is not merely the attrition of brick and mortar, but a palimpsest of deferred ambitions -where
facades and flyovers mutate into repositories of stalled futurities. Fissures, efflorescence, and skeletal scaffolding do
not simply erode st ructure; they recalibrate signification, converting vacancy into inscription and corrosion into (1)
______. Such spatial remnants resist the antiseptic linearity of redevelopment blueprints, proposing instead a fugitive
temporality-discordant, accreted, an d refractory. Within this interpretive frame, the ruin ceases to be a lapse in
engineering; it becomes an overcoded lexicon of disintegration. Its idiom reverberates through fractured masonry and
derelict signage, repudiating the veneer of municipal optimi sm. To aestheticize such degradation uncritically is to
engage in epistemic (2) ______—where dispossession is stylized and precarity rendered picturesque. What parades as
revitalization frequently entails spatial excision, evacuating memory in deference to speculative capital while
"preservation" morphs into curated sterilization. To approach ruins hermeneutically is to substitute instrumentality
with (3) ______—to permit debris to articulate what masterplans efface. These terrains solicit not embellishment but
critical excavation, wherein rusted girders and dormant corridors metamorphose into loci of semantic dissent. Yet
deterioration defies even romantic recuperation. It is not metaphor but material surplus —an excess that unsettles
containment. Commodific ation cannot assimilate it; sentimentality cannot fossilize it. It endures, insurgent and
mnemonic, as a (4) ______ grammar inscribed upon civic amnesia. The metropolis’s vestiges are not antiquities; they
are discursive ruptures —interruptions in the urban narrative that compel interpretation not as forfeiture, but as
infrastructural (5) ______.
A
laundering
B
erosion
C
ornamentation
D
mediation
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (3)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Metropolitan erosion is not merely the attrition of brick and mortar, but a palimpsest of deferred ambitions -where
facades and flyovers mutate into repositories of stalled futurities. Fissures, efflorescence, and skeletal scaffolding do
not simply erode st ructure; they recalibrate signification, converting vacancy into inscription and corrosion into (1)
______. Such spatial remnants resist the antiseptic linearity of redevelopment blueprints, proposing instead a fugitive
temporality-discordant, accreted, an d refractory. Within this interpretive frame, the ruin ceases to be a lapse in
engineering; it becomes an overcoded lexicon of disintegration. Its idiom reverberates through fractured masonry and
derelict signage, repudiating the veneer of municipal optimi sm. To aestheticize such degradation uncritically is to
engage in epistemic (2) ______—where dispossession is stylized and precarity rendered picturesque. What parades as
revitalization frequently entails spatial excision, evacuating memory in deference to speculative capital while
"preservation" morphs into curated sterilization. To approach ruins hermeneutically is to substitute instrumentality
with (3) ______—to permit debris to articulate what masterplans efface. These terrains solicit not embellishment but
critical excavation, wherein rusted girders and dormant corridors metamorphose into loci of semantic dissent. Yet
deterioration defies even romantic recuperation. It is not metaphor but material surplus —an excess that unsettles
containment. Commodification cannot assimilate it; sentimentality cannot fossilize it. It endures, insurgent and
mnemonic, as a (4) ______ grammar inscribed upon civic amnesia. The metropolis’s vestiges are not antiquities; they
are discursive ruptures —interruptions in the urban narrative that compel interpretation not as forfeiture, but as
infrastructural (5) ______.
A
abstraction
B
attunement
C
velocity
D
symmetry
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
What should come in the place of blank number (4)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Metropolitan erosion is not merely the attrition of brick and mortar, but a palimpsest of deferred ambitions -where
facades and flyovers mutate into repositories of stalled futurities. Fissures, efflorescence, and skeletal scaffolding do
not simply erode st ructure; they recalibrate signification, converting vacancy into inscription and corrosion into (1)
______. Such spatial remnants resist the antiseptic linearity of redevelopment blueprints, proposing instead a fugitive
temporality-discordant, accreted, an d refractory. Within this interpretive frame, the ruin ceases to be a lapse in
engineering; it becomes an overcoded lexicon of disintegration. Its idiom reverberates through fractured masonry and
derelict signage, repudiating the veneer of municipal optimi sm. To aestheticize such degradation uncritically is to
engage in epistemic (2) ______—where dispossession is stylized and precarity rendered picturesque. What parades as
revitalization frequently entails spatial excision, evacuating memory in deference to speculative capital while
"preservation" morphs into curated sterilization. To approach ruins hermeneutically is to substitute instrumentality
with (3) ______—to permit debris to articulate what masterplans efface. These terrains solicit not embellishment but
critical excavation, wherein rusted girders and dormant corridors metamorphose into loci of semantic dissent. Yet
deterioration defies even romantic recuperation. It is not metaphor but material surplus —an excess that unsettles
containment. Commodific ation cannot assimilate it; sentimentality cannot fossilize it. It endures, insurgent and
mnemonic, as a (4) ______ grammar inscribed upon civic amnesia. The metropolis’s vestiges are not antiquities; they
are discursive ruptures —interruptions in the urban narrative that compel interpretation not as forfeiture, but as
infrastructural (5) ______.
A
insurgent
B
decorative
C
equivocal
D
ornamental
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
. What should come in the place of blank number (5)?
In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate
option to fill in each blank:
Metropolitan erosion is not merely the attrition of brick and mortar, but a palimpsest of deferred ambitions -where
facades and flyovers mutate into repositories of stalled futurities. Fissures, efflorescence, and skeletal scaffolding do
not simply erode st ructure; they recalibrate signification, converting vacancy into inscription and corrosion into (1)
______. Such spatial remnants resist the antiseptic linearity of redevelopment blueprints, proposing instead a fugitive
temporality-discordant, accreted, and refractory. Within this interpretive frame, the ruin ceases to be a lapse in
engineering; it becomes an overcoded lexicon of disintegration. Its idiom reverberates through fractured masonry and
derelict signage, repudi ating the veneer of municipal optimism. To aestheticize such degradation uncritically is to
engage in epistemic (2) ______—where dispossession is stylized and precarity rendered picturesque. What parades as
revitalization frequently entails spatial excisio n, evacuating memory in deference to speculative capital while
"preservation" morphs into curated sterilization. To approach ruins hermeneutically is to substitute instrumentality
with (3) ______—to permit debris to articulate what masterplans efface. These terrains solicit not embellishment but
critical excavation, wherein rusted girders and dormant corridors metamorphose into loci of semantic dissent. Yet
deterioration defies even romantic recuperation. It is not metaphor but material surplus —an excess th at unsettles
containment. Commodification cannot assimilate it; sentimentality cannot fossilize it. It endures, insurgent and
mnemonic, as a (4) ______ grammar inscribed upon civic amnesia. The metropolis’s vestiges are not antiquities; they
are discursive ruptures—interruptions in the urban narrative that compel interpretation not as forfeiture, but as
infrastructural (5) ______.
A
blueprint
B
testimony
C
genesis
D
restoration
Clear Selection
Question 85 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage:
1. Virtual reality (VR) technology fully immerses users in a computer-generated environment that simulates real-world
experiences.
2. It has diverse applications across entertainment, medical training, industrial design, and architectural visualization.
3. VR relies on headsets, motion -tracking devices, and specialized controllers to create interactive and realistic
experiences.
4. However, high costs, technical limitations, and the need for specialized equipment have slowed its widespread
adoption.
A
2-4-1-3
B
3-2-1-4
C
1-3-2-4
D
4-1-3-2
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
Change the following from active to passive:
Scholars consider this manuscript a landmark in medieval literature.
A
This manuscript is considered a landmark in medieval literature.
B
This manuscript has considered a landmark in medieval literature.
C
Scholars are considered this manuscript a landmark.
D
A landmark in medieval literature considered this manuscript.
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. Choose the correct direct speech:
The captain instructed the players to remain focused.
A
“Remain focused,” instructed the captain.
B
“Players, remain focused,” the captain instructed.
C
“You must remain focused,” said the captain.
D
“Remain focused,” the captain instructed.
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. Choose the correct indirect speech:
He said, “I will submit the report tomorrow.”
A
He said he will submit the report tomorrow.
B
He said that he would submit the report the next day.
C
He said that he will submit the report the next day.
D
He said he would submit the report tomorrow.
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERSPICUOUS
A
Lucid
B
Obscure
C
Ambiguous
D
Cryptic
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: EXIGUOUS
A
Scant
B
Paltry
C
Abundant
D
Inadequate
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
Select the correct option:
The committee was praised not for what it approved but ____ it rejected.
A
for what
B
what
C
which
D
that
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
Select the correct spelling for a word meaning ‘an official pardon’.
A
Amonesty
B
Amnesty
C
Amnisty
D
Amnesti
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitution for: ‘A person with exceptional skill in music or the arts’.
A
Maestro
B
Virtuoso
C
Artisan
D
Connoisseur
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘Something that is no longer in use’.
A
Redundant
B
Archaic
C
Obsolete
D
Antiquated
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
The library provides access to (1)/ extensive collection of journals (2)/ and research databases (3)/ for postgraduate
scholars. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage:
1. Renewable energy sources are gaining popularity worldwide.
2. Governments are offering incentives to promote their adoption.
3. Solar and wind power are among the most widely used options.
4. This shift aims to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
A
1-3-2-4
B
2-1-4-3
C
3-1-2-4
D
1-2-3-4
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The ancient manuscript featured a decorative tau at the beginning of each chapter .
A
The mathematician studied the properties of the constant tau in circle calculations.
B
The monk drew a tau on the altar cloth during the ceremony.
C
The architect used a tau-shaped design in the building layout.
D
The historian analyzed the tau symbols in old coins.
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
She entered the hall without no hesitation.
A
without any hesitation
B
without hesitation
C
with no hesitation
D
without having hesitation
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
Select the correct option:
No sooner had the verdict been announced ____ the crowd erupted in protest.
A
when
B
than
C
before
D
as
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
Convert the sentence from passive to active voice:
The proposal might have been rejected by the ethics committee without consulting the advisory board.
A
The ethics committee might reject the proposal without consulting the advisory board.
B
The ethics committee might have rejected the proposal without consulting the advisory board.
C
The proposal might reject the ethics committee without consulting the advisory board.
D
The ethics committee rejected the proposal without consulting the advisory board.
Clear Selection