Question 1 of 100
Complete the analogy: CD : OP :: GH : ?
A
ST
B
UV
C
QR
D
WX
Clear Selection
Question 2 of 100
Statement:
The government has increased toll charges on highways.
Conclusions:
I. The cost of road travel will increase.
II. People will completely stop using highways.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both follow
D
Neither follows
Clear Selection
Question 3 of 100
If ‘PLANE’ is written as ‘QMBOF’, how is ‘TRAIN’ written?
A
USBJO
B
USBJM
C
USBOJ
D
TSBOJ
Clear Selection
Question 4 of 100
What comes next? LMN, MNO, NOP , OPQ, ?
A
QRS
B
PQR
C
LMN
D
RST
Clear Selection
Question 5 of 100
A car covers 240 m in 12 seconds. Find its speed.
A
60 km/h
B
72 km/h
C
54 km/h
D
48 km/h
Clear Selection
Question 6 of 100
If “DELHI” is written as “IHLED”, how is “MUMBAI” written?
A
IABMUM
B
IABUMM
C
IABMMU
D
IAMUBM
Clear Selection
Question 7 of 100
Pointing to a man, Rita said, “He is the son of the only brother of my mother.” How is the man related to Rita?
A
Brother
B
Cousin
C
Uncle
D
Nephew
Clear Selection
Question 8 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
Flat No. 512, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
A
Flat No. 512, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
B
Flat 512, Green Valley Apartment, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
C
Flat No. 521, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
D
Flat No. 512, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri West, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069
Clear Selection
Question 9 of 100
If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘-’, then find: 12 × 6 + 3 ÷ 2 = ?
A
7
B
8
C
9
D
10
Clear Selection
Question 10 of 100
Statements:
A ≥ B = C < D, E > C ≤ F
Conclusions:
I. D > B
II. A ≥ C
A
Only I is true.
B
Only II is true.
C
Both I and II are true.
D
Neither I nor II is true.
Clear Selection
Question 11 of 100
If 4@3 = 13, 7@2 = 11 and 9@4 = 25. Then 6@5 = ?
A
30
B
31
C
26
D
23
Clear Selection
Question 12 of 100
Complete the series:
125, 1000, 3375, 8000, ?
A
15625
B
12000
C
10000
D
19683
Clear Selection
Question 13 of 100
Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 14, 30, 62, ?
A
126
B
124
C
128
D
130
Clear Selection
Question 14 of 100
If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘-’, ‘C’ means ‘×’, and ‘D’ means ‘÷’, then find the value of: (40 D 5 A 6 C 2) B (18 D 3 C
2)?
A
10
B
12
C
9
D
8
Clear Selection
Question 15 of 100
Statement:
Online education platforms are increasingly being adopted by students.
Assumptions:
I. Students have access to the internet.
II. Traditional education has become irrelevant.
III. Online platforms offer flexible learning.
A
Only I and III are implicit
B
Only I is implicit
C
Only II and III are implicit
D
All are implicit
Clear Selection
Question 16 of 100
If 5&3 = 40 and 6&4 = 60, then 7&5 = ?
A
70
B
84
C
96
D
90
Clear Selection
Question 17 of 100
Problem: Rising traffic congestion in metro cities.
Course of Action:
I. Authorities should promote public transport.
II. Private vehicles should be completely banned.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both follow
D
Neither follows
Clear Selection
Question 18 of 100
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
series.
PQR, MNO, JKL, GHI, ?
A
DEF
B
ABC
C
HGF
D
QRS
Clear Selection
Question 19 of 100
If 9#2 = 83 and 8#3 = 67, then 7#4 = ?
A
51
B
58
C
53
D
47
Clear Selection
Question 20 of 100
The following series has one incorrect number . Identify it. 11, 17, 23, 29, 35
A
17
B
23
C
29
D
35
Clear Selection
Question 21 of 100
Statement:
Enrollment in fitness centers has increased.
Conclusions:
I. People are becoming health conscious.
II. Medical expenses have reduced.
A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both follow
D
Neither follows
Clear Selection
Question 22 of 100
Find the odd one out.
A
River
B
Mountain
C
Plateau
D
Dictionary
Clear Selection
Question 23 of 100
M is the sister of N. N is the father of P . P is the son of Q. How is Q related to M?
A
Aunt
B
Sister-in-law
C
Grandmother
D
Daughter
Clear Selection
Question 24 of 100
If 12 men can complete a work in 8 days, how many days will 16 men take?
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
7
Clear Selection
Question 25 of 100
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below.
22, Park Street, Kolkata, West Bengal - 700016
A
22, Park Street, Kolkata, Bihar - 700016
B
22, Park Street, Kolkata, West Bengal - 700016
C
22, Park Road, Kolkata, West Bengal - 700016
D
21, Park Street, Kolkata, West Bengal - 700016
Clear Selection
Question 26 of 100
Which of the following statements about Kolkata's colonial architecture is/are correct?
1.Indo-Saracenic buildings combine Indian and European elements.
2.Neoclassical structures in Kolkata emerged largely in the 20th century.
3.The Maidan area separates many colonial administrative buildings from native settlements.
A
Only 1 and 2 are correct
B
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C
Only 2 and 3 are correct
D
All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Clear Selection
Question 27 of 100
Which organization releases the Global Innovation Index?
A
World Bank
B
IMF
C
WIPO
D
UNDP
Clear Selection
Question 28 of 100
Which medieval text by Matanga is an important source for early Indian music theory?
A
Natya Shastra
B
Brihaddeshi
C
Dattilam
D
Raga Tarangini
Clear Selection
Question 29 of 100
Fill in the blank: In many tribal traditions of central India, the peacock feather symbolizes beauty and ________.
A
bravery
B
fertility
C
sorrow
D
silence
Clear Selection
Question 30 of 100
In which year was the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) founded?
A
1928
B
1932
C
1947
D
1950
Clear Selection
Question 31 of 100
Assertion (A): In 1991, India undertook a two -step devaluation of the rupee.Reason (R): The objective was to
improve export competitiveness and ease the balance-of-payments crisis.
A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Clear Selection
Question 32 of 100
Which is NOT caused by geomagnetic storms?
A
GPS disruption
B
Power grid failure
C
Radio blackout
D
Earthquakes
Clear Selection
Question 33 of 100
Which initiative promotes afforestation along river banks under rural employment?
A
Green India Mission
B
Namami Gange Plantation Drive
C
Jal Shakti Abhiyan
D
River Green Scheme
Clear Selection
Question 34 of 100
Why is Yakshagana considered a composite art?
A
It combines dance, music, and dialogue
B
It is purely ritualistic
C
It avoids costumes
D
It uses only narration
Clear Selection
Question 35 of 100
Which of the following statements regarding the National Games is/are correct?
1. They are organized by the Indian Olympic Association.
2. They include multiple sports disciplines.
A
Only 1 is correct
B
Only 2 is correct
C
Both 1 and 2 are correct
D
Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Clear Selection
Question 36 of 100
If price rises by 5% and demand falls by 5%, demand is:
A
Elastic
B
Inelastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Perfectly elastic
Clear Selection
Question 37 of 100
The First Five-Year Plan emphasized:
A
Heavy industries
B
Agriculture and irrigation
C
Services sector
D
Defence
Clear Selection
Question 38 of 100
Arrange chronologically:
1. Golaknath case
2. Kesavananda Bharati case
3. Minerva Mills case
A
1–2–3
B
2–1–3
C
3–2–1
D
1–3–2
Clear Selection
Question 39 of 100
Which feature of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Irish Constitution?
A
Fundamental Duties
B
Directive Principles
C
Federal Court
D
Separate electorates
Clear Selection
Question 40 of 100
Which statement about India at the 2012 London Olympics is correct?
A
India won more than five medals
B
India won its first athletics gold
C
India did not win any medals
D
India topped the medal tally
Clear Selection
Question 41 of 100
The term BOP refers to balance of:
A
Production
B
Payments
C
Power
D
Prices
Clear Selection
Question 42 of 100
In the traditional performance of Kudiyattam , which of the following elements is essentially used to maintain
rhythmic timing during long dramatic enactments?
A
Hand-held cymbals (Ilathalam)
B
Bamboo clappers struck on the floor
C
Heavy wooden pestles
D
Stone slabs beaten with metal rods
Clear Selection
Question 43 of 100
The India–France naval exercise VARUNA mainly focuses on:
A
Mountain warfare
B
Maritime cooperation and naval drills
C
Cyber warfare
D
Space coordination
Clear Selection
Question 44 of 100
Which Indian-origin writer won the 2022 International Booker Prize for the novel Tomb of Sand (originally written
in Hindi as Ret Samadhi )?
A
Geetanjali Shree
B
Perumal Murugan
C
Anuradha Roy
D
Kiran Desai
Clear Selection
Question 45 of 100
The Asian Games were first hosted by India in:
A
1951
B
1962
C
1982
D
1990
Clear Selection
Question 46 of 100
The Subsidiary Alliance system of the British aimed primarily to:
A
Promote Indian industries
B
Create buffer alliances under British control
C
Encourage local self-rule
D
Abolish princely states
Clear Selection
Question 47 of 100
Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized by which Amendment?
A
61st
B
73rd
C
86th
D
44th
Clear Selection
Question 48 of 100
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched (Ancient Officer–Role)?
A
Samaharta – Chief revenue collector
B
Senapati – Head priest
C
Purohita – Military commander
D
Gramika – Royal treasurer
Clear Selection
Question 49 of 100
Consider the following about photosynthesis:
1. It requires sunlight.
2. Chlorophyll absorbs light.
3. It occurs in mitochondria.
A
Only 1 and 2 are correct
B
Only 2 and 3 are correct
C
Only 1 and 3 are correct
D
1, 2 and 3 are correct
Clear Selection
Question 50 of 100
Following his victory over Humayun at the Battle of Chausa (1539) and later at Kannauj (1540), which ruler
assumed the title “Hazrat-i-Ala” and established a short-lived Afghan administrative system noted for revenue and road
reforms?
A
Muhammad Adil Shah Suri
B
Sher Shah Suri
C
Sikandar Suri
D
Ibrahim Lodi
Clear Selection
Question 51 of 100
Two similar triangles have perimeters in the ratio 4 : 7. If the sum of their areas is 130 cm², find the area of the
smaller triangle.
A
16 cm²
B
49 cm²
C
32 cm²
D
64 cm²
Clear Selection
Question 52 of 100
A cylinder and a hemisphere have the same radius. If their total surface areas are equal, find the ratio of the
height of the cylinder to its radius.
A
1:3
B
2:3
C
1:2
D
3:2
Clear Selection
Question 53 of 100
Find the product of 0.12 and 0.5.
A
0.06
B
0.6
C
0.006
D
0.612
Clear Selection
Question 54 of 100
213 +223–433 +150
is equal to:
A
–59448
B
–60000
C
0
D
1
Clear Selection
Question 55 of 100
The volume of a right circular cone is equal to the volume of a sphere. If the height of the cone is four times its
base radius, find the ratio of the cone's radius to the sphere's radius.
A
1:1
B
√3
3
:1
C
1: √2
3
D
√4
3
:1
Clear Selection
Question 56 of 100
If cos𝜃 = -4/5 and 𝜃 lies in the third quadrant, calculate the value of (sin𝜃+cos𝜃)2 .
A
1
25
B
7
5
C
1
D
49
25
Clear Selection
Question 57 of 100
An amount of ₹8000 is divided into two parts, the first part is lent at 5% simple interest and the second at 8%
simple interest. If the total annual interest earned is ₹520, find the sum lent at 5%.
A
₹4500
B
₹3500
C
₹4000
D
₹5000
Clear Selection
Question 58 of 100
A surveyor uses a string to measure the height of a tower . The string is anchored to the ground 15 meters from
the foot of the tower, forming a 30° angle with the horizontal. What is the length of the string?
A
15 m
B
10√3𝑚
C
30 m
D
15√3𝑚
Clear Selection
Question 59 of 100
A tangent PQ is drawn from point P to a circle with center O. If OP = 25 cm and the radius is 7 cm, find the length
of the tangent PQ.
A
18 cm
B
24 cm
C
32 cm
D
20 cm
Clear Selection
Question 60 of 100
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining points (1, 5) and (5, 9).
A
y = –x + 10
B
y = x + 4
C
y = –x + 14
D
y = x – 4
Clear Selection
Question 61 of 100
Given a + b + c = 0, and 𝑎3 +𝑏3 +𝑐3 = 3𝑎𝑏𝑐, evaluate (𝑎–𝑏)3 +(𝑏–𝑐)3 +(𝑐–𝑎)3.
A
0
B
9(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
C
27abc
D
3(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
Clear Selection
Question 62 of 100
Sector A has a radius of 10 cm and a central angle of 120°. Sector B has the same radius but a central angle of (𝜋
/3) radians. What is the ratio of the area of Sector A to the area of Sector B?
A
1:2
B
2:1
C
3:1
D
1:1
Clear Selection
Question 63 of 100
A woman invests ₹20,000. She lends one part to A for 2 years at 8% per annum SI and the rest to B for 2 years at
12% per annum SI. If the total interest from both is ₹4,160, find the amount lent to A.
A
₹6,000
B
₹8,000
C
₹12,000
D
₹14,000
Clear Selection
Question 64 of 100
If tan𝐴 =
𝑥
𝑥+1 find sec2 𝐴.
A
𝑥2+(𝑥+1)2
(𝑥+1)2
B
𝑥2+1
𝑥2
C
2𝑥2+2𝑥+1
𝑥2+1
D
1
Clear Selection
Question 65 of 100
From an external point M, two tangents MA and MB are drawn to a circle of radius 6 cm. If the angle between
the tangents is 90°, find the distance of point M from the center of the circle.
A
12 cm
B
6√3𝑐𝑚
C
6√2𝑐𝑚
D
6 cm
Clear Selection
Question 66 of 100
A cube of side 10 cm is to be sliced into 125 small, equal cubes. What is the minimum number of cuts required?
A
12
B
15
C
124
D
25
Clear Selection
Question 67 of 100
If P is 40% more than Q, and Q is 25% more than R, find the ratio P : R.
A
7:4
B
4:7
C
3:2
D
5:3
Clear Selection
Question 68 of 100
Calculate the sum of all interior angles of a regular octagon.
A
1080°
B
900°
C
1260°
D
720°
Clear Selection
Question 69 of 100
A PT teacher arranges students into a solid square drill. After the arrangement, he finds that 24 students are left
over . If the total number of students is 2140, how many students are in each row?
A
44
B
54
C
46
D
56
Clear Selection
Question 70 of 100
If cos A =
𝑚
𝑛, then what is the value of (1+cot2 𝐴)?
A
𝑛2/(𝑛2–𝑚2)
B
2𝑛2/(𝑛2–𝑚2)
C
𝑛2/2(𝑛2–𝑚2)
D
5𝑛2/(𝑛2–𝑚2)
Clear Selection
Question 71 of 100
Tap X and Tap Y can fill a cistern in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively. An outlet pipe Z can empty it in 20 hours.
If all three are opened together, how long will it take to fill the empty cistern?
A
8 hours
B
12 hours
C
10 hours
D
15 hours
Clear Selection
Question 72 of 100
A retailer buys a gadget for ₹1200. He offers a 15% discount on the marked price. If the marked price is set at
₹1500, what is his overall profit or loss percentage?
A
5.25% Profit
B
6.25% Profit
C
4.5% Loss
D
8% Profit
Clear Selection
Question 73 of 100
If the radius of a cylinder is increased by 10% and its height is increased by 20%, what is the net percentage
increase in its volume?
A
32%
B
45.2%
C
44%
D
30%
Clear Selection
Question 74 of 100
Evaluate √30+√30+√30+⋯
A
5
B
3
C
10
D
6
Clear Selection
Question 75 of 100
Determine the slope of a straight line that passes through the coordinates (5, -2) and (8, 7).
A
3
B
1/3
C
-3
D
2
Clear Selection
Question 76 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys
the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
He said, “Where have you submitted the report?”
A
He asked where I had submitted the report.
B
He asked where had I submitted the report.
C
He asked where I have submitted the report.
D
He asked where did I submit the report.
Clear Selection
Question 77 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
The certification module was structured (1)/ to make the participants capable to resolve (2)/ high -risk compliance
issues effectively (3)/ in cross-border financial transactions. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 78 of 100
Choose the most suitable option:
She took great pain to complete the research.
A
took pains
B
had pain
C
gave pain
D
took the pain
Clear Selection
Question 79 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage:
1. Deforestation contributes significantly to rising atmospheric carbon levels.
2. This accelerates climate instability and disrupts ecosystems.
3. Tropical rainforests are particularly susceptible to large-scale clearing.
4. Immediate conservation measures are essential to restore ecological balance.
A
2-3-1-4
B
1-3-2-4
C
3-1-2-4
D
4-1-2-3
Clear Selection
Question 80 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: REBELLIOUS
A
Defiant
B
Loyal
C
Cooperative
D
Passive
Clear Selection
Question 81 of 100
Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Turpitude
A
Immorality
B
Deceit
C
Virtue
D
Corruption
Clear Selection
Question 82 of 100
What central function did English serve in colonial India, as per the passage?
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
Language has seldom been a neutral medium of exchange; in colonial India, it operated as a mechanism of power,
ideology, and selfhood. The British regime, while ostensibly pursuing education and reform, carefully engineered
linguistic hierarchies to consol idate dominance. English, installed as the official language of administration and law,
was not merely functional—it became a marker of intellectual authority and upward mobility. Indigenous tongues, by
contrast, were deliberately downgraded, splintered, a nd rebranded as “vernaculars,” a label that quietly implied
provincialism and lesser worth. The enforcement of English education through Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 was not
simply an academic shift; it was a strategic cultural project. The cultivation of Indians who were, in Macaulay’s phrase,
“Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste,” reflected a form of linguistic hegemony aimed at internalizing colonial
norms. English became the channel through which many were trained to evaluate themselves and th eir traditions
through imperial rationality, often producing estrangement from indigenous ways of knowing.
At the same time, colonial policy toward regional languages was deeply inconsistent. Although British officials
promoted the codification of Indian languages, this process frequently drained them of oral flexibility and lived cultural
nuance. Sanskrit and Persian, once symbols of prestige, were steadily displaced, while Hindi and Urdu turned into sites
of political and communal rivalry —each advanced by different groups, thereby sharpening social cleavages. This
reordering of language served two ends: administrative convenience and the dilution of resistance. A society fractured
along linguistic and communal lines was easier to manage. Moreover, proficiency in English became a gatekeeping
device for bureaucratic entry and economic advancement, embedding inequality within colonial modernity itself. In
short, language under empire was never only about words—it was about access, allegiance, and authority. Even after
Independence, the residues of this linguistic stratification continue to echo in schooling, social mobility, and persistent
debates over language and identity.
A
Strengthening regional harmony
B
Sustaining oral traditions
C
Validating colonial authority and ideology
D
Reviving indigenous languages
Clear Selection
Question 83 of 100
What does the passage suggest by labelling native tongues as “vernaculars”?
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
Language has seldom been a neutral medium of exchange; in colonial India, it operated as a mechanism of power,
ideology, and selfhood. The British regime, while ostensibly pursuing education and reform, carefully engineered
linguistic hierarchies to consol idate dominance. English, installed as the official language of administration and law,
was not merely functional—it became a marker of intellectual authority and upward mobility. Indigenous tongues, by
contrast, were deliberately downgraded, splintered, a nd rebranded as “vernaculars,” a label that quietly implied
provincialism and lesser worth. The enforcement of English education through Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 was not
simply an academic shift; it was a strategic cultural project. The cultivation of Indians who were, in Macaulay’s phrase,
“Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste,” reflected a form of linguistic hegemony aimed at internalizing colonial
norms. English became the channel through which many were trained to evaluate themselves and th eir traditions
through imperial rationality, often producing estrangement from indigenous ways of knowing.
At the same time, colonial policy toward regional languages was deeply inconsistent. Although British officials
promoted the codification of Indian languages, this process frequently drained them of oral flexibility and lived cultural
nuance. Sanskrit and Persian, once symbols of prestige, were steadily displaced, while Hindi and Urdu turned into sites
of political and communal rivalry —each advanced by different groups, thereby sharpening social cleavages. This
reordering of language served two ends: administrative convenience and the dilution of resistance. A society fractured
along linguistic and communal lines was easier to manage. Moreover, proficiency in English became a gatekeeping
device for bureaucratic entry and economic advancement, embedding inequ ality within colonial modernity itself. In
short, language under empire was never only about words—it was about access, allegiance, and authority. Even after
Independence, the residues of this linguistic stratification continue to echo in schooling, social mobility, and persistent
debates over language and identity.
A
They were treated as prestigious languages
B
They were regarded as equivalent to English
C
They were celebrated for elite usage
D
They were framed as inferior or provincial
Clear Selection
Question 84 of 100
Why does the passage consider Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 especially important?
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
Language has seldom been a neutral medium of exchange; in colonial India, it operated as a mechanism of power,
ideology, and selfhood. The British regime, while ostensibly pursuing education and reform, carefully engineered
linguistic hierarchies to consol idate dominance. English, installed as the official language of administration and law,
was not merely functional—it became a marker of intellectual authority and upward mobility. Indigenous tongues, by
contrast, were deliberately downgraded, splintered, a nd rebranded as “vernaculars,” a label that quietly implied
provincialism and lesser worth. The enforcement of English education through Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 was not
simply an academic shift; it was a strategic cultural project. The cultivation of Indians who were, in Macaulay’s phrase,
“Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste,” reflected a form of linguistic hegemony aimed at internalizing colonial
norms. English became the channel through which many were trained to evaluate themselves and th eir traditions
through imperial rationality, often producing estrangement from indigenous ways of knowing.
At the same time, colonial policy toward regional languages was deeply inconsistent. Although British officials
promoted the codification of Indian languages, this process frequently drained them of oral flexibility and lived cultural
nuance. Sanskrit and Persian, once symbols of prestige, were steadily displaced, while Hindi and Urdu turned into sites
of political and communal rivalry —each advanced by different groups, thereby sharpening social cleavages. This
reordering of language served two ends: administrative convenience and the dilution of resistance. A society fractured
along linguistic and communal lines was easier to manage. Moreover, proficiency in English became a gatekeeping
device for bureaucratic entry and economic advancement, embedding inequ ality within colonial modernity itself. In
short, language under empire was never only about words—it was about access, allegiance, and authority. Even after
Independence, the residues of this linguistic stratification continue to echo in schooling, social mobility, and persistent
debates over language and identity.
A
It established multilingual schooling for all
B
It prioritized oral-language instruction
C
It formalized English as an instrument of cultural dominance
D
It restored Sanskrit and Persian to prominence
Clear Selection
Question 85 of 100
Which contradiction in British handling of Indian languages is highlighted in the passage?
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
Language has seldom been a neutral medium of exchange; in colonial India, it operated as a mechanism of power,
ideology, and selfhood. The British regime, while ostensibly pursuing education and reform, carefully engineered
linguistic hierarchies to consol idate dominance. English, installed as the official language of administration and law,
was not merely functional—it became a marker of intellectual authority and upward mobility. Indigenous tongues, by
contrast, were deliberately downgraded, splintered, a nd rebranded as “vernaculars,” a label that quietly implied
provincialism and lesser worth. The enforcement of English education through Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 was not
simply an academic shift; it was a strategic cultural project. The cultivation of Indians who were, in Macaulay’s phrase,
“Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste,” reflected a form of linguistic hegemony aimed at internalizing colonial
norms. English became the channel through which many were trained to evaluate themselves and th eir traditions
through imperial rationality, often producing estrangement from indigenous ways of knowing.
At the same time, colonial policy toward regional languages was deeply inconsistent. Although British officials
promoted the codification of Indian languages, this process frequently drained them of oral flexibility and lived cultural
nuance. Sanskrit and Persian, once symbols of prestige, were steadily displaced, while Hindi and Urdu turned into sites
of political and communal rivalry —each advanced by different groups, thereby sharpening social cleavages. This
reordering of language served two ends: administrative convenience and the dilution of resistance. A society fractured
along linguistic and communal lines was easier to manage. Moreover, proficiency in English became a gatekeeping
device for bureaucratic entry and economic advancement, embedding inequ ality within colonial modernity itself. In
short, language under empire was never only about words—it was about access, allegiance, and authority. Even after
Independence, the residues of this linguistic stratification continue to echo in schooling, social mobility, and persistent
debates over language and identity.
A
English was avoided in governance
B
Persian was promoted above all languages
C
Codification protected every cultural nuance
D
Codification often erased oral and cultural subtleties
Clear Selection
Question 86 of 100
. What enduring consequence of colonial language policy does the passage emphasize?
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
Language has seldom been a neutral medium of exchange; in colonial India, it operated as a mechanism of power,
ideology, and selfhood. The British regime, while ostensibly pursuing education and reform, carefully engineered
linguistic hierarchies to consol idate dominance. English, installed as the official language of administration and law,
was not merely functional—it became a marker of intellectual authority and upward mobility. Indigenous tongues, by
contrast, were deliberately downgraded, splintered, a nd rebranded as “vernaculars,” a label that quietly implied
provincialism and lesser worth. The enforcement of English education through Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 was not
simply an academic shift; it was a strategic cultural project. The cultivation of Indians who were, in Macaulay’s phrase,
“Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste,” reflected a form of linguistic hegemony aimed at internalizing colonial
norms. English became the channel through which many were trained to evaluate themselves and their traditions
through imperial rationality, often producing estrangement from indigenous ways of knowing.
At the same time, colonial policy toward regional languages was deeply inconsistent. Although British officials
promoted the codification of Indian languages, this process frequently drained them of oral flexibility and lived cultural
nuance. Sanskrit and Persian, once symbols of prestige, were steadily displaced, while Hindi and Urdu turned into sites
of political and communal rivalry —each advanced by different groups, thereby sharpening social cleavages. This
reordering of language served two ends: administrative convenience and the dilution of resistance. A society fractured
along linguistic and communal lines was easier to manage. Moreover, proficiency in English became a gatekeeping
device for bureaucratic entry and economic advancement, embedding inequ ality within colonial modernity itself. In
short, language under empire was never only about words—it was about access, allegiance, and authority. Even after
Independence, the residues of this linguistic stratification continue to echo in schooling, social mobility, and persistent
debates over language and identity.
A
Uniform literacy growth across villages
B
Complete equality among languages after 1947
C
Continuing stratification in education and opportunity
D
Fully decentralized administrative control
Clear Selection
Question 87 of 100
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
It was not until the audit findings (1)/ were submitted to the oversight committee (2)/ did the corporation initiated (3)/
a comprehensive internal review. (4)/
A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Clear Selection
Question 88 of 100
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys
the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
She said, “Let the documents not be circulated without authorization.”
A
She asked not to circulate the documents without authorization.
B
She instructed that the documents should not be circulated without authorization.
C
She said that let the documents not be circulated.
D
She ordered no one circulate the documents.
Clear Selection
Question 89 of 100
Change the following from active to passive:
The manager will send you the confirmation email.
A
You are sent the confirmation email by the manager .
B
You will be sent the confirmation email by the manager .
C
You were sent the confirmation email by the manager .
D
You will have sent the confirmation email.
Clear Selection
Question 90 of 100
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:
The cathedral’s façade was reinforced by a carved corbel supporting the balcony.
A
The stone corbel bore the immense weight of the arch above it.
B
The corbel displayed intricate medieval craftsmanship.
C
The strategist used a political corbel to justify his controversial alliance.
D
The damaged corbel was carefully restored during renovation.
Clear Selection
Question 91 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for the given phrase:
A belief that contradicts accepted religious doctrine
A
Apostasy
B
Heresy
C
Mutiny
D
Rebellion
Clear Selection
Question 92 of 100
Which is the correct spelling of the word meaning having a harmful effect.
A
Deleterious
B
Dalitarius
C
Deletarius
D
Deliterous
Clear Selection
Question 93 of 100
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately
conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.
The CEO stated that had the merger succeeded, the company would have expanded globally.
A
“If the merger succeeded, the company would expand,” said the CEO.
B
“Had the merger succeeded, the company would have expanded globally,” said the CEO.
C
“If the merger had succeeded, the company will expand globally,” said the CEO.
D
“Had the merger succeed, the company would expand,” said the CEO.
Clear Selection
Question 94 of 100
Choose the correct spelling for "a statement of beliefs"
A
Creid
B
Creed
C
Creade
D
Credd
Clear Selection
Question 95 of 100
Fill in the blank with the correct inversion structure:
Hardly had the summit begun ____ diplomatic tensions resurfaced.
A
than
B
when
C
but
D
and
Clear Selection
Question 96 of 100
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: EULOGY
A
Lament
B
Tribute
C
Protest
D
Rebuke
Clear Selection
Question 97 of 100
Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom:
To cry stinking fish
A
To praise oneself publicly
B
To underestimate one’s own value
C
To mock competitors
D
To exaggerate success
Clear Selection
Question 98 of 100
Convert the sentence from passive to active voice:
The citizens were warned about the cyclone by the authorities.
A
The authorities warned the citizens about the cyclone.
B
The citizens warned the authorities about the cyclone.
C
The authorities have warned the citizens.
D
The citizens were warning the authorities.
Clear Selection
Question 99 of 100
Choose the correct one-word substitute for the given phrase:
A person who opposes war or violence
A
Radical
B
Pacifist
C
Extremist
D
Nationalist
Clear Selection
Question 100 of 100
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage.
1. Consequently, adaptability has become a crucial managerial attribute.
2. Strategic agility differs fundamentally from operational efficiency.
3. It involves anticipating change and responding proactively.
4. It also requires aligning organizational resources with evolving market conditions.
A
2-1-3-4
B
2-3-4-1
C
2-4-1-3
D
3-4-2-1
Clear Selection