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SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I (14th Sep 2025 - Shift 2)

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Question 1 of 100

BOOK : CPPL :: DEAR : ?

Question 2 of 100

If 8 @ 4 = 32 and 6 @ 5 = 30, then 9 @ 3 = ?

Question 3 of 100

Complete the series: 9, 13, 21, 37, ?

Question 4 of 100

If 7 # 4 = 15 and 9 # 6 = 21, then 8 # 5 = ?

Question 5 of 100

What comes next? 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

Question 6 of 100

Ravi is brother of Aman. Aman is brother of Sita. How is Ravi related to Sita?

Question 7 of 100

Seema says, “He is the son of the only daughter of my father .” How is the man related to Seema?

Question 8 of 100

Find the odd one out:

Question 9 of 100

A two-digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits. If the digits are interchanged, the new number is 18 more than the original. Find the number .

Question 10 of 100

Select the letter-cluster that will replace the question mark: JKL, MNO, PQR, ?

Question 11 of 100

If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then: 16 + 4 × 18 - 2 ÷ 2 = ?

Question 12 of 100

Symbols meaning: P + Q → P is father of Q and P - Q → P is sister of Q Statements: A + B - C. How A related to C?

Question 13 of 100

If the letters of the word NOTEBOOK are arranged alphabetically, how many letters are between the 2nd from left and 2nd from right in the new arrangement?

Question 14 of 100

Select the letter-cluster that will replace the question mark: ABB, BCC, CDD, ?

Question 15 of 100

Statement: Online education is growing rapidly across the country. Assumptions: I. Internet access is increasing. II. Traditional education will disappear completely.

Question 16 of 100

After interchanging ‘+’ and ‘×’, which equation is true?

Question 17 of 100

If ‘ABCDE’ is coded as ‘EDCBA’ and ‘LMNOP’ is coded as ‘PONML’, then ‘QRSTU’ will be coded as:

Question 18 of 100

CLOCK : ENQEM :: TABLE : ?

Question 19 of 100

A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:2. If 20 litres of milk is added, what is the new ratio?

Question 20 of 100

In a code language: “The food tastes good” → ta na ka pa, “This movie was good” → la ta sa ra. What is the code for “good”?

Question 21 of 100

Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern:

Question 22 of 100

If the letters of the word MARKET are arranged alphabetically, how many letters remain in the same position?

Question 23 of 100

A box has 4 red, 5 blue and 6 green balls. What is the probability of drawing a non-blue ball?

Question 24 of 100

Identify the similar address: Mr . Rohit, A-12 Green Park, Delhi, 110016

Question 25 of 100

If ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then which equation is correct?

Question 26 of 100

Which of the following statements about the Badami Caves is correct?

Question 27 of 100

The National Air Quality Index (AQI) uses how many pollutants to calculate the index?

Question 28 of 100

Which classical dance form is associated with the ‘Sattra’ monasteries of Assam?

Question 29 of 100

The terms ‘Bull’ and ‘Bear’ are associated with:

Question 30 of 100

The book “The Idea of India” is authored by:

Question 31 of 100

In Hindustani Classical music, the Thaat system was classified into 10 basic scales by:

Question 32 of 100

What is the Sex Ratio of India as per the NFHS-5 (2019–21) report?

Question 33 of 100

Which Indian state launched the ‘Mukhyamantri Nijut Moina’ scheme in 2024 to promote girl education?

Question 34 of 100

Who was appointed as the Chief of the Army Staff of India in June 2024?

Question 35 of 100

‘Kyoto Protocol’ is related to:

Question 36 of 100

Which of the following terms in Athletics is correctly matched?

Question 37 of 100

The speed required by a satellite to remain in a circular orbit around Earth is known as:

Question 38 of 100

Assertion (A): The Kailashnath Temple at Ellora is a monolithic structure. Reason (R): It was carved out of a single rock from top to bottom.**

Question 39 of 100

‘SAMPADA’ scheme is related to:

Question 40 of 100

Assertion (A): The PM-eBus Sewa aims to deploy 10,000 electric buses in cities. Reason (R): It is designed to reduce carbon emissions and promote green mobility in public transport.**

Question 41 of 100

‘Mission Mausam’, approved by the Cabinet in 2024, focuses on:

Question 42 of 100

Operation Flood is associated with:

Question 43 of 100

The ‘Blue Carbon’ refers to:

Question 44 of 100

The Gini Coefficient is a measure of:

Question 45 of 100

Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Question 46 of 100

In the context of the Indian economy, ‘Liquidity Trap’ refers to a situation where:

Question 47 of 100

According to the World Press Freedom Index 2024, what is India's rank?

Question 48 of 100

Who won the gold medal in the Women’s 10m Air Pistol event at the ISSF World Cup 2024?

Question 49 of 100

The ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ is celebrated on:

Question 50 of 100

Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty as per the 42nd Amendment?

Question 51 of 100

If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 6, and C : D = 7 : 8, then find B : D.

Question 52 of 100

What is the result of 3 2 5 ÷0.8?

Question 53 of 100

What should be subtracted from 8, 10, 11, 14 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?

Question 54 of 100

If 50% of a number is 1.2 more than 35% of it, what is the number?

Question 55 of 100

Rajesh started a business with ₹1,00,000. After 4 months, Suresh joined with ₹1,20,000. After another 4 months, Rajesh withdrew ₹40,000. What is the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?

Question 56 of 100

Two individuals, P and Q, rent a field together . P has 20 oxen grazed for 5 months. Q grazes 30 buffalo for 5 months and 40 sheep for 3 months. Relationships: 2 oxen = 5 buffalo, 3 buffalo = 6 sheep. What fraction of rent should P pay?

Question 57 of 100

P , Q, and R started a business with capitals in ratio 1:2:4. After 4 months, R withdrew 50% of his capital. After another 2 months, Q withdrew 25% of his capital. The business continued for 12 months total. Total profit is ₹2,40,000. Find profit ratio P : Q : R.

Question 58 of 100

The average age of 30 students in a class is 15 years. When a new student is admitted, the average increases by 0.5 years. What is the age of the new student?

Question 59 of 100

The monthly average salary for 6 employees plus one manager is ₹18,000. If the manager earns ₹30,000, what is the average salary of the 6 employees?

Question 60 of 100

A factory has 100 workers, of whom 40% are women. The average monthly salary of women is ₹50,000, while men earn ₹60,000. What is the overall average monthly salary (in ₹000s) of the workforce?

Question 61 of 100

An item is marked at ₹4,000. A discount offer changes from 12% to 18%. How much extra discount does a customer get?

Question 62 of 100

Arun ordered 8 kg of type-A sugar and some additional kilograms of type-B sugar . Type-A costs twice as much per kg as type-B. When delivered, quantities were swapped, increasing the bill by 35%. Find the ratio of original type-A to type-B quantity.

Question 63 of 100

A certain amount grows to ₹8000 in 2 years and ₹8800 in 3 years. Determine the simple interest rate per annum.

Question 64 of 100

A shopkeeper sells 8 items for ₹240, but incurs a loss equal to the cost price of 2 items. What is the loss percent?

Question 65 of 100

A vendor buys three types of apples. First at 6 for ₹15, second at 4 for ₹12, third at 3 for ₹9. Mixed in ratio 3:2:1 respectively. Sold at 5 for ₹14. Profit or loss percent approximately?

Question 66 of 100

A shopkeeper marks an item 25% above cost price. He gives 12% discount and makes ₹240 profit. What is the cost price?

Question 67 of 100

A trader marked an article 30% above cost price. He gave two consecutive discounts of 15% and 10%. Loss was ₹220. What is the marked price?

Question 68 of 100

A container has liquids X, Y , Z in ratio 4 : 6 : 5. 20 liters removed, then 10L of X and 15L of Y added. New Y is 25L more than new X. What was initial total quantity?

Question 69 of 100

Karan borrowed money at SI: 6% for first 4 years, 8% for next 3 years, 10% beyond 7 years. Total interest after 9 years is ₹4,760. How much did he borrow?

Question 70 of 100

A cone has base area equal to its lateral surface area. If radius = r, find slant height l.

Question 71 of 100

A square field of side 35 m has a circular pond. If pond area is 770 m², what is remaining area?

Question 72 of 100

If height of right prism increased by 60% with same base area, what is volume percentage increase?

Question 73 of 100

A wall clock (radius 18 cm) has a chord forming equilateral triangle with two radii at center . Smaller segment painted. What percentage of total area(approximate)?

Question 74 of 100

A cylinder (r = 5cm, h = 12cm) is bored by a hole (r = 3cm, full height). Percentage of original volume removed?

Question 75 of 100

A sector of circle (r = 20cm) has central angle 60°. Another sector same circle has angle π/3 radians. Ratio of areas?

Question 76 of 100

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: I was discussing about the matter with him.

Question 77 of 100

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PUERILE

Question 78 of 100

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. He said that they had finished the work before he reached.

Question 79 of 100

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Blow hot and cold

Question 80 of 100

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The contract is said to have been altered unlawfully by the contractor using fabricated records.

Question 81 of 100

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The claim that critical voices are suppressed (1) / in the absence of firm procedural checks (2) / indicate a disturbing pattern of democratic decline (3) / visible at several layers of administration. (4)

Question 82 of 100

Select the correct option: It is essential that the agreement _____ approved prior to the deadline.

Question 83 of 100

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: ADULATORY

Question 84 of 100

Change the following from active to passive: Scholars might reasonably reassess the manuscript once fresh findings come to light.

Question 85 of 100

Which option most accurately summarizes how the passage portrays the nature of Test cricket? Read the following passage and answer the question based on the passage: Cricket has repeatedly reshaped itself to match shifting viewer tastes and rapid technological change. Among its formats, Test matches and One Day Internationals (ODIs) stand for two very different approaches —one centred on endurance and long-term planning, the other built on speed, excitement, and instant outcomes. Test cricket, widely viewed as the sport’s highest expression, stretches across five days and demands deep patience, refined technique, and strong mental stamina. It allows players to display classical competence and strategic intelligence, with momentum that can swing slowly and suddenly —complex, layered, and uncertain. To traditionalists, this format feels like a craft that honours discipline and persistence more than flashy moments. ODIs, on t he other hand, condense the contest into a single day. With restricted overs, they favour attacking stroke-play, inventive bowling, and sharp field strategies. Their fast tempo fits modern lifestyles where time is limited and attention is often brief. For media and sponsors, ODIs also bring clear commercial advantage, turning matches into high-value entertainment. Still, some argue that increased commercialization has reduced the game’s subtlety, as spectacle can overshadow substance. Meanwhile, supporters of Test cricket worry about shrinking audiences, linking it to a sports culture increasingly driven by entertainment. Even so, major rivalries —such as the Ashes or intense India –Australia series —can still capture worldwide attention. Ultimately, the discussion is not only about which format is better, but what cricket should represent. The key challenge is to protect the integrity of Test cricket while keeping ODIs widely engaging—an uneasy balance for cricket authorities to manage in the coming years.

Question 86 of 100

Based on the passage, what drawback of ODIs is specifically pointed out? Read the following passage and answer the question based on the passage: Cricket has repeatedly reshaped itself to match shifting viewer tastes and rapid technological change. Among its formats, Test matches and One Day Internationals (ODIs) stand for two very different approaches —one centred on endurance and long-term planning, the other built on speed, excitement, and instant outcomes. Test cricket, widely viewed as the sport’s highest expression, stretches across five days and demands deep patience, refined technique, and strong mental stamina. It allows players to display classical competence and strategic intelligence, with momentum that can swing slowly and suddenly —complex, layered, and uncertain. To traditionalists, this format feels like a craft that honours discipline and persistence more than flashy moments. ODIs, on t he other hand, condense the contest into a single day. With restricted overs, they favour attacking stroke-play, inventive bowling, and sharp field strategies. Their fast tempo fits modern lifestyles where time is limited and attention is often brief. For media and sponsors, ODIs also bring clear commercial advantage, turning matches into high-value entertainment. Still, some argue that increased commercialization has reduced the game’s subtlety, as spectacle can overshadow substance. Meanwhile, supporters of Test cricket worry about shrinking audiences, linking it to a sports culture increasingly driven by entertainment. Even so, major rivalries —such as the Ashes or intense India –Australia series —can still capture worldwide attention. Ultimately, the discussion is not only about which format is better, but what cricket should represent. The key challenge is to protect the integrity of Test cricket while keeping ODIs widely engaging—an uneasy balance for cricket authorities to manage in the coming years.

Question 87 of 100

How does the passage differentiate the two formats in terms of what attracts viewers today? Read the following passage and answer the question based on the passage: Cricket has repeatedly reshaped itself to match shifting viewer tastes and rapid technological change. Among its formats, Test matches and One Day Internationals (ODIs) stand for two very different approaches —one centred on endurance and long-term planning, the other built on speed, excitement, and instant outcomes. Test cricket, widely viewed as the sport’s highest expression, stretches across five days and demands deep patience, refined technique, and strong mental stamina. It allows players to display classical competence and strategic intelligence, with momentum that can swing slowly and suddenly —complex, layered, and uncertain. To traditionalists, this format feels like a craft that honours discipline and persistence more than flashy moments. ODIs, on t he other hand, condense the contest into a single day. With restricted overs, they favour attacking stroke-play, inventive bowling, and sharp field strategies. Their fast tempo fits modern lifestyles where time is limited and attention is often brief. For media and sponsors, ODIs also bring clear commercial advantage, turning matches into high-value entertainment. Still, some argue that increased commercialization has reduced the game’s subtlety, as spectacle can overshadow substance. Meanwhile, supporters of Test cricket worry about shrinking audiences, linking it to a sports culture increasingly driven by entertainment. Even so, major rivalries —such as the Ashes or intense India –Australia series —can still capture worldwide attention. Ultimately, the discussion is not only about which format is better, but what cricket should represent. The key challenge is to protect the integrity of Test cricket while keeping ODIs widely engaging—an uneasy balance for cricket authorities to manage in the coming years.

Question 88 of 100

What attitude does the writer show regarding the need to safeguard Test cricket? Read the following passage and answer the question based on the passage: Cricket has repeatedly reshaped itself to match shifting viewer tastes and rapid technological change. Among its formats, Test matches and One Day Internationals (ODIs) stand for two very different approaches —one centred on endurance and long-term planning, the other built on speed, excitement, and instant outcomes. Test cricket, widely viewed as the sport’s highest expression, stretches across five days and demands deep patience, refined technique, and strong mental stamina. It allows players to display classical competence and strategic intelligence, with momentum that can swing slowly and suddenly—complex, layered, and uncertain. To traditionalists, this format feels like a craft that honours discipline and persistence more than flashy moments. ODIs, on the other hand, condense the contest into a single day. With restricted overs, they favour attacking stroke-play, inventive bowling, and sharp field strategies. Their fast tempo fits modern lifestyles where time is limited and attention is often brief. For media and sponsors, ODIs also bring clear commercial advantage, turning matches into high-value entertainment. Still, some argue that increased commercialization has reduced the game’s subtlety, as spectacle can overshadow substance. Meanwhile, supporters of Test cricket worry about shrinking audiences, linking it to a sports culture increasingly driven by entertainment. Even so, major rivalries —such as the Ashes or intense India –Australia series —can still capture worldwide attention. Ultimately, the discussion is not only about which format is better, but what cricket should represent. The key challenge is to protect the integrity of Test cricket while keeping ODIs widely engaging—an uneasy balance for cricket authorities to manage in the coming years.

Question 89 of 100

. What main issue does the passage raise about modern cricket? Read the following passage and answer the question based on the passage: Cricket has repeatedly reshaped itself to match shifting viewer tastes and rapid technological change. Among its formats, Test matches and One Day Internationals (ODIs) stand for two very different approaches —one centred on endurance and long-term planning, the other built on speed, excitement, and instant outcomes. Test cricket, widely viewed as the sport’s highest expression, stretches across five days and demands deep patience, refined technique, and strong mental stamina. It allows players to display classical competence and strategic intelligence, with momentum that can swing slowly and suddenly —complex, layered, and uncertain. To traditionalists, this format feels like a craft that honours discipline and persistence more than flashy moments. ODIs, on t he other hand, condense the contest into a single day. With restricted overs, they favour attacking stroke-play, inventive bowling, and sharp field strategies. Their fast tempo fits modern lifestyles where time is limited and attention is often brief. For media and sponsors, ODIs also bring clear commercial advantage, turning matches into high-value entertainment. Still, some argue that increased commercialization has reduced the game’s subtlety, as spectacle can overshadow substance. Meanwhile, supporters of Test cricket worry about shrinking audiences, linking it to a sports culture increasingly driven by entertainment. Even so, major rivalries —such as the Ashes or intense India –Australia series —can still capture worldwide attention. Ultimately, the discussion is not only about which format is better, but what cricket should represent. The key challenge is to protect the integrity of Test cricket while keeping ODIs widely engaging—an uneasy balance for cricket authorities to manage in the coming years.

Question 90 of 100

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said to her, “Please shut the door .”

Question 91 of 100

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This natural process is important for the survival of many plant species and supports biodiversity. 2. Seed dispersal is the movement of seeds away from the parent plant to new locations. 3. The movement may occur through wind, water, animals, or even explosive mechanisms. 4. When seeds reach suitable ground, they can germinate and grow into new plants.

Question 92 of 100

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: You must stop your brother to do such acts.

Question 93 of 100

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This method, often called evaporation, plays a key role in the water cycle and helps regulate climate. 2. Water bodies such as rivers, lakes, and oceans constantly release moisture into the air . 3. The sun’s heat provides the energy needed for water to change into vapour . 4. It starts when sunlight warms the surface, causing water molecules to rise into the atmosphere.

Question 94 of 100

Select the correct option: ______ finalising the technical audit, the committee asked for further resources.

Question 95 of 100

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Conciliatory

Question 96 of 100

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The belief that the instructions are merely advisory (1) / instead of mandatory have caused (2) / repeated lapses in adherence (3) / across multiple departments. (4)

Question 97 of 100

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The scholar presented a detailed review of the tripos in nineteenth-century Cambridge examinations.

Question 98 of 100

Spot the correct spelling of a sense related to body-movement awareness.

Question 99 of 100

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: “A remark that seems absurd or self-opposing but can contain truth.”

Question 100 of 100

Select the correct option: Hardly had the rover activated ___ it began sending diagnostic signals.